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Jamesk486
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vshaunak@gmail.com
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neeraj kaushal
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vshaunak@gmail.com
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Unless we know whether m-n is +ve, we can't cross m-n from both sides without changing the sign of inequality.
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kirakira
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neeraj kaushal
Answer is B

As statement 1 is not sufficient because m/n can be greater than 1 even when m=-4 and n=-2 where m<n>2 .

Stement 2 is sufficient as we solve inequalities we can cross off m-n from both sides of inequality and left with 1/n>1/m which leads to m>n

So B is the answer


(2) Certainly you can cross off (m-n) but not sure about the sign of the inequality.
If (m-n) > 0 => 1/n > 1/m
If (m-n) <0> 1/n < 1/m

Hence, (E)
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jainvik7
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E for me.

Option 1 -- Not sufficient (as the explanations above)

Option 2 --
A better approach for evaluating the second option would be -->

(m-n)/n>(m-n)/m
or, m^2 - mn > mn - n^2
or, m^2 + n^2 - 2mn > 0
or, (m - n )^2 > 0

Put some positive and negative values for both m and n. Not sufficient.

Any suggestions/comments on this please.
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sidbidus
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Jamesk486
m>n?

(1) m/n>1

(2) (m-n)/n>(m-n)/m

I'll go with E

Statement 1 : Insufficient
------------------------------

Let m = 3 and
n = 2

Here 3/2 > 1 and m>n

Let m = -3 and
n = -2

Here -3/-2 > 1 but n>m

so insufficient

Statement 2: Insufficient
-----------------------------

(m-n)/n>(m-n)/m

We cannnot cancel (m-n) on both sides coz we don't know the sign of m-n.

This gives

m/n + n/m > 2

Let m = 4 and
n = 2

Here 5/2 > 2 and m>n

Let m = -4 and
n = -2

Here also 5/2 > 2 but m<n.....so insufficient.

Taking them together also doen't help

So E it should be.

Quote:
(integer) 24! has how many 0s?


24! = 24 *...*20*.....*15*.....*10*......*5*......1

basically we are looking for the multiples of 5....coz 10=5*2
we get 4 multiples of 5 and we have more that 4 multiples of 2 here.

so 24!=x *10*10*10*10

So we wil have '4' 0s
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F75
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Answer E because we do not know whether m and n are positive.
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Amit05
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Answer is E though I too initially concluded B cancelling (m-n ) from both sides of inequality.

Can someone give the reasoning on why can't we cancel (m-n) from b.s of inequality ?
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KillerSquirrel
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Amit05
Answer is E though I too initially concluded B cancelling (m-n ) from both sides of inequality.

Can someone give the reasoning on why can't we cancel (m-n) from b.s of inequality ?


see my explanation in:

https://www.gmatclub.com/phpbb/viewtopic.php?t=45472

:)
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Jamesk486
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[quote="vshaunak@gmail.com"]My answer is 'E'.

Statement1: m/n>1
m and n both should be either positive or negative.
for +ve, m>n for -ve m m-n/m
solving this m/n + n/m > 2
plug in numbers m =10, n =5 this is true. That means m >n
m = -10, n =-5 this is also true. That means m n
m = -10, n =-5 satisfy stmt1 and stmt2. It means m n for -ve m m-n/m
solving this m/n + n/m > 2

is this from statement one? i don't really understand what you did..



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