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OFFICIAL EXPLANATION (1) x^2+y^2=1. Recall that (x−y)2≥0 (square of any number is more than or equal to zero). Expand: x^2−2xy+y^2≥0 and since x2+y2=1 then: 1−2xy≥0. So, xy≤1/2. Sufficient. (2) x^2−y^2=0. Re-arrange and take the square root from both sides: |x|=|y|. Clearly insufficient.
I am fine with (2). I have trouble with (1).
What if, instead of using x^2-2xy+y^2≥0, I decided to use x^2+2xy+y^2≥0 (note the positive). That would result in xy≥-1/2 instead of the xy≤1/2 that is sufficient. In the end, I would have to use x^2-2xy+y^2≥0?
Anyone care to elaborate on this please?
Archived Topic
Hi there,
Archived GMAT Club Tests question - no more replies possible.
OFFICIAL EXPLANATION (1) x^2+y^2=1. Recall that (x−y)2≥0 (square of any number is more than or equal to zero). Expand: x^2−2xy+y^2≥0 and since x2+y2=1 then: 1−2xy≥0. So, xy≤1/2. Sufficient. (2) x^2−y^2=0. Re-arrange and take the square root from both sides: |x|=|y|. Clearly insufficient.
I am fine with (2). I have trouble with (1).
What if, instead of using x^2-2xy+y^2≥0, I decided to use x^2+2xy+y^2≥0 (note the positive). That would result in xy≥-1/2 instead of the xy≤1/2 that is sufficient. In the end, I would have to use x^2-2xy+y^2≥0?
Anyone care to elaborate on this please?
Show more
Yes, to solve this question you should use (x−y)^2≥0 not (x+y)^2≥0.
Because square of any number is more than or equal to zero). so x2−2xy+y2≥0 is used instead of x2+2xy+y2≥0?????????????????????????????
Bunuel
lesliehh
Is xy≤1/2?
(1) x^2+y^2=1 (2) x^2−y^2=0
OFFICIAL EXPLANATION (1) x^2+y^2=1. Recall that (x−y)2≥0 (square of any number is more than or equal to zero). Expand: x^2−2xy+y^2≥0 and since x2+y2=1 then: 1−2xy≥0. So, xy≤1/2. Sufficient. (2) x^2−y^2=0. Re-arrange and take the square root from both sides: |x|=|y|. Clearly insufficient.
I am fine with (2). I have trouble with (1).
What if, instead of using x^2-2xy+y^2≥0, I decided to use x^2+2xy+y^2≥0 (note the positive). That would result in xy≥-1/2 instead of the xy≤1/2 that is sufficient. In the end, I would have to use x^2-2xy+y^2≥0?
Anyone care to elaborate on this please?
Yes, to solve this question you should use (x−y)^2≥0 not (x+y)^2≥0.
I am not able to understand this explanation. What triggered you to choose this method to find the solution?
OFFICIAL EXPLANATION (1) x^2+y^2=1. Recall that (x−y)2≥0 (square of any number is more than or equal to zero). Expand: x^2−2xy+y^2≥0 and since x2+y2=1 then: 1−2xy≥0. So, xy≤1/2. Sufficient.
Archived Topic
Hi there,
Archived GMAT Club Tests question - no more replies possible.