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Bunuel

I know that ­100/X % = 1/X, since 100/X %= 100/X / 100 = 100/X * 1/100 = 1/X


But what i donot understand is how can 1^th /X equals 1/X???

Can you please explain that to me step by step as i did with ­100/X % until the last step= 1/X

Thanks in advance!
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100/X % = 1/X let's us take a Number 5 for example. 1/5 will be decreased every time 1/5 , 1/5 , 1/5, 1/5, for 5th time remaining is 1/5 which is not less than 1/5 hence the number that decreased by 1/x every time is less than 5.

Now let's take 4 1/4, 1/4, 1/4, 1/4, 5th we don't have anything 5th time to decrease the value is 0 which is less than 1/4 hence 4 we can take here. From 1 to are the values that sufficient, but the question states that number is Greater than 1, hence 2, 3, 4 are only numbers suitable. Now Range of these numbers is 4-2 = 2
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Bunuel

I know that ­100/X % = 1/X, since 100/X %= 100/X / 100 = 100/X * 1/100 = 1/X


But what i donot understand is how can 1^th /X equals 1/X???

Can you please explain that to me step by step as i did with ­100/X % until the last step= 1/X

Thanks in advance!
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