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I think this is a poor-quality question and I agree with explanation. Question stem mentioned 100/x of the amount and I calculated it as (100/x)th of the amount and I was confused at first because any value of x less than 100 is impossible and x = 100 means full amount.
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I think this is a poor-quality question and I agree with explanation. Question stem mentioned 100/x of the amount and I calculated it as (100/x)th of the amount and I was confused at first because any value of x less than 100 is impossible and x = 100 means full amount.
­
% sign was omitted. Now it's fixed. Thank you.
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\(\frac{­100}{x}\)% = \(\frac{1}{x}\)

M: original amount in the account

=> \(M * (1-\frac{1}{x})^5 < M * \frac{1}{x}\)

=> \(\frac{(x-1)^5}{x^5} < \frac{1}{x}\)

=> \((x-1)^5 < x^4\)

If x = 2 => \(1^5 = 1 < 2^4\) => ok
If x = 3 => \(2^5 = 32 < 3^4 = 81\)
If x = 4 => \(3^5 = 243 < 4^4 = 2^8 = 256\) => ok
\((x-1)^5\) is coming really close so x = 5 won't work

=> Range: 4 - 2 = 2­
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Bunuel

a191291r
I think this is a poor-quality question and I agree with explanation. Question stem mentioned 100/x of the amount and I calculated it as (100/x)th of the amount and I was confused at first because any value of x less than 100 is impossible and x = 100 means full amount.
­
% sign was omitted. Now it's fixed. Thank you.
­Much appreciated!
Thank you!
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Bunuel

I know that ­100/X % = 1/X, since 100/X %= 100/X / 100 = 100/X * 1/100 = 1/X


But what i donot understand is how can 1^th /X equals 1/X???

Can you please explain that to me step by step as i did with ­100/X % until the last step= 1/X

Thanks in advance!
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100/X % = 1/X let's us take a Number 5 for example. 1/5 will be decreased every time 1/5 , 1/5 , 1/5, 1/5, for 5th time remaining is 1/5 which is not less than 1/5 hence the number that decreased by 1/x every time is less than 5.

Now let's take 4 1/4, 1/4, 1/4, 1/4, 5th we don't have anything 5th time to decrease the value is 0 which is less than 1/4 hence 4 we can take here. From 1 to are the values that sufficient, but the question states that number is Greater than 1, hence 2, 3, 4 are only numbers suitable. Now Range of these numbers is 4-2 = 2
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Bunuel

I know that ­100/X % = 1/X, since 100/X %= 100/X / 100 = 100/X * 1/100 = 1/X


But what i donot understand is how can 1^th /X equals 1/X???

Can you please explain that to me step by step as i did with ­100/X % until the last step= 1/X

Thanks in advance!
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