I understand your thought process, you're wondering why Bunuel accounts for 100 cookies, not 95 cookies, as the cost. This is because although they didn't sell those last 5 cookies, they still purchased 100 cookies. 100 cookies is the TOTAL cost. They need to still account for the cost of those 5 cookies even though they weren't sold.
If you look at how Bunuel calculated the revenue , he doesn't include the 5 cookies in the 120C, because they were not sold. He only includes the marketed up price.
Since the TOTAL cost was 100C (even though 5 cookies were not sold) and the revenue was 120C (This is the revenue for selling 95 cookies)
Using the percentage change formula, The profit as a percentage of cost is
(Revenue - Cost) /Cost x 100 = 20%
(120 -100) / 100 x 100 = 20%
Hope that helps! Bunuel knows his stuff!
Quote:
Bunuelas a percentage of its total cost for the batch of baked cookies on that day I get that the
Total cost is the 100C.
But, what i donot get is the following:
What was the coffee shop's gross profit from the sale of the cookiesProfit= Revenue - Cost. If we run the numbers, we know that the revenue is 120C, but the number of cookies sold(
the sale of the cookies) is 60+20+15= 95 and the cost of these 95 sold cookies is 95C.
My question is, why do you count 100C for the cost of 95 sold cookies to calculate the profit, while the acutal cost for the 95 sold cookies is 95C?
Thanks in advance!