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rhyme
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We haven't really covered spot rates yet, but that certainly makes sense - if you have a solution, please share. This is helpful boys, thanks!
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The yield for number 7 is 6.91%

I solved for the yields on the zeros to get the spot rate for each time period. So the 1 year spot was 4%, 2year was 6%, 3yr was 7%. You then discount the cash flows of the coupon bond at the approprate spot rate. For example, the first coupon is 50 in one year, discount that at 4%.The last payment was $1,050 and you discount it at 7% for 3 years. Using this process you get a no arbitrage value of around 950 (I got 949.72). Then use this as your PV, 1000 as FV, 50 as PMT and solve for yield on your calculator. I got 6.91%. Not 100% positive but I think this is right.

I'm not a CFA charterholder but a did sleep at a Holiday Inn Express last night
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IHateTheGMAT

I'm not a CFA charterholder but a did sleep at a Holiday Inn Express last night

haha... nice.

I just did the problem again (before reading your answer) and got the same thing, although your explanation is a lot clearer than what I would have come up with. Thanks!

The way I got there was similar --
If 50 is the coupon in year 1, then 50/1000 * 961.54 should be the arbitrage price for that stream... year 2, 50/1000 * 890 ... same thing for year 3... add those up you get 949.69..
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You're welcome!

You can solve for the no arbitrage price in number 8 the exact same way. I got $1,006.87, so it is mispriced. I think you make an arb profit by buying the zero coupons and packaging them into a bunch of the coupon bond and selling them at $1,006 a piece (a package of zeros with equivalent cash flows will cost less than the coupon bond). If you buy the right amount of the zero coupon bonds you should be able to create the right number of the coupon bonds to get a $200 profit.
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rhyme


The way I got there was similar --
If 50 is the coupon in year 1, then 50/1000 * 961.54 should be the arbitrage price for that stream... year 2, 50/1000 * 890 ... same thing for year 3... add those up you get 949.69..

You got it! That works too
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rhyme


The way I got there was similar --
If 50 is the coupon in year 1, then 50/1000 * 961.54 should be the arbitrage price for that stream... year 2, 50/1000 * 890 ... same thing for year 3... add those up you get 949.69..

You got it! That works too

Now to tackle #8 :)

This is so my own fault for sleeping through the last 3 lectures. haha.
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meh. GTAIV is more fun.
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#8

Right, you have the discount factors, by way of having the prices of the zero's (they are the discount factors, multiplied by a notional, 1000)

1yr - 0.95
2yr - 0.9
3yr - 0.82

So, to get the price, you multiply your cashflows by the discount factors

70 x 0.95 = 66.5
70 x 0.9 = 63
1070 x 0.82 (it matures, so you get the full amount back) = 877.4

So the fair value is (sum DCF) 1006.9. As per the question it is underpriced - we want to buy the coupon bond and sell various bits of the zero's to arbitrage. So, we want to get neutral to get $2000. This is a bit trickier. But we know we are right at this point. How? because the difference between the fair value and the market price is $20 per bond. Which is pretty damn convenient, given the arbitrage they want us to do.

We need to buy 100 times the variable bond - the tricky part is funding the thing for nothing. We need to get the split of value from each of the coupon cash flows and the final payment. We want to sell short 7 of the 1yr and 2yr bonds, and 107 of the 3yr.

This will get us value today of $6650, $6300, and $87740 (total $100,690).

To meet the payments required for shorting of those bonds, we need to buy 100 of the coupon bond at market, $986.90, an outlay of $98,690.

The cashflows we generate are a wash - each cashflow from the bond we receive, we pay to the person we did the applicable short trade with. Your Broker can take care of that. We have $2000 and are going to spend it now.

How often would you do this? As often as you can (Stern reference for you all there). I loved doing debt instruments this semester. I completely aced that class - it made sense somehow (even binomial tree swaption pricing).
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Exactly what I got for #8. Well done.
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the fact that my semester is finished and I got remotely excited by a bond math question is not cause for celebration!
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the fact that my semester is finished and I got remotely excited by a bond math question is not cause for celebration!

Yea, you are one sick puppy.