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Re: Most recent work on the history of leisure in Europe has been based on [#permalink]
In Q3), I am trying to understand why is E wrong?
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Re: Most recent work on the history of leisure in Europe has been based on [#permalink]
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skhanna10 wrote:
In Q3), I am trying to understand why is E wrong?


Hi skhanna10

E is wrong because it says that the historians do not know the distinction between pre and industrial age. It is the contrary: they set up this simple distinction just because they do not want or are not able to catch the complexity of different eras
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Re: Most recent work on the history of leisure in Europe has been based on [#permalink]
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Re: Most recent work on the history of leisure in Europe has been based on [#permalink]
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