Among people who experience migraine headaches, some experience what doctors call "common" migraines, whereas others experience "classical" migraines. Siblings and spouses of common migraine sufferers are themselves twice as likely as the general population to experience common migraines. Siblings of classical migraine sufferers are four times more likely than the general population to experience classical migraines, whereas spouses of classical migraine sufferers are no more likely than the general population to experience such headaches.
The information above provides the most support for which of the following hypotheses?
(A) Susceptibility to classical migraines is more dependent on hereditary factors than is susceptibility to common migraines.
(B) Unmarried adults are more likely to suffer from classical migraines than they are to suffer from common migraines.
(C) People who do not experience migraine headaches are unlikely to have spouses who are migraine headache sufferers.
(D) Children of people who suffer from common migraines are more likely than the general population to experience a common migraine.
(E) Between one-quarter and one-half of the general population suffer from either common or classical migraine headaches.
Can anyone help me eliminate B?
I'm stuck between options A and B
So basically, it says that people with a sibling who has migraines are 2x more likely to get common migraines and 4x more likely to get classical migraines. For spouses, it’s 2x more likely for common migraines but no increased chance for classical ones.
Now, I get how A makes sense. But B is confusing me.
If someone is unmarried, the spouse part doesn’t matter, right?
So only the sibling info applies. That means they’re 2x more likely to get common migraines and 4x more likely to get classical ones.
So doesn’t that mean unmarried people are more likely to get classical migraines than common ones—just like B says?
What am I missing here?