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A bag contains some white and black balls. The probability of picking two white balls one after other without replacement from that bag is 14/33..
Then What will be the probability of picking two black balls from that bag if bag can hold maximum 15 balls only?
(White/Total)*(White-1/Total-1) = 14/33.....We need 2 sets of consecutive numbers to be equal to 14 and 33, respectively (OR a multiple of 14 and 33 respectively). 14 & 33 do not work. So, next is 28 & 66...nope. 42 & 99...42 works, 99 doesn’t....Next is, 56 & 132. This works (56 = 8 * 7, 132 = 12 * 11). It is also given that maximum number of total balls can be 15. So, it is safe to assume that there are 12 total balls and 8 of them are white. Which means, 4 of them are black......Probability of getting 2 black balls = (4/12)*(3/11) = 1/11
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whats the level of the above question? found it quite tricky to understand..
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655+ certainly....Possibly a 705+ too
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Hi, I am struggling with approximation questions like these -- what’s the best way to round figure these numbers? the ans to this one is given 1/2
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Hi, I am struggling with approximation questions like these -- what’s the best way to round figure these numbers? the ans to this one is given 1/2
u can also cancel these numbers approximately and then round off at last or u can round off first and then cancel bcoz it’s an approximation question. so u just need to get the approx answers and I think the options given will vary significantly since it is an approximation question
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no, the ans choices are pretty close -- and I end up getting the wrong ones always -- is there a thumb rule to approximation -- Like I would have rounded off to 290, 560, 220, 380, 880, 580
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Hi, I am struggling with approximation questions like these -- what’s the best way to round figure these numbers? the ans to this one is given 1/2
=2/5*1/2*7/3=6/10=7/15, which is about 0.47

dreamkd
=2/5*1/2*7/3=6/10=7/15, which is about 0.47
typo, please ignore 6/10
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=2/5*1/2*7/3=6/10=7/15, which is about 0.47
According to the rounding principle, I converted it into 3/6*2/4*9/6=9/24=0.375---not sure what the other options are, but I’d be confused if there were 1/3 and 1/2 in there. can you help to explain? thx
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According to the rounding principle, I converted it into 3/6*2/4*9/6=9/24=0.375---not sure what the other options are, but I’d be confused if there were 1/3 and 1/2 in there. can you help to explain? thx
it is quite difficult to answer this by typing

Let me upload the picture

sorry looks like I can not upload the pic here
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is the answer for PS1 B) 5/32?
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Bunuel
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is the answer for PS1 B) 5/32?
­The OA will be automatically revealed on Saturday 7th of September 2024 01:30:09 AM Pacific Time Zone
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TheVDR
(White/Total)*(White-1/Total-1) = 14/33.....We need 2 sets of consecutive numbers to be equal to 14 and 33, respectively (OR a multiple of 14 and 33 respectively). 14 & 33 do not work. So, next is 28 & 66...nope. 42 & 99...42 works, 99 doesn’t....Next is, 56 & 132. This works (56 = 8 * 7, 132 = 12 * 11). It is also given that maximum number of total balls can be 15. So, it is safe to assume that there are 12 total balls and 8 of them are white. Which means, 4 of them are black......Probability of getting 2 black balls = (4/12)*(3/11) = 1/11
Got it..
Thank u very much..
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fayey
According to the rounding principle, I converted it into 3/6*2/4*9/6=9/24=0.375---not sure what the other options are, but I’d be confused if there were 1/3 and 1/2 in there. can you help to explain? thx
yes both were there and even I ended up picking 1/3

But I found this route -- if you remember the core fractions - 1/3 - 0.33 so then use this for 2/3 4/3 and same for all others .. it is easier to solve
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TanyaBhargava
whats the level of the above question? found it quite tricky to understand..
Bank job previous question.
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