Rohit_842
Bunuel
5 blue marbles, 3 red marbles and 4 purple marbles are placed in a bag. If 4 marbles are drawn WITHOUT replacement, what is the probability that the result will not be 2 blue and 2 purple marbles?Given: 5B+3R+4P=12 marbles. Question: what is the probability of NOT having scenario BBPP.
Calculate the probability of an opposite event and subtract this value from 1.
Opposite event is that out of 4 marbles we will have 2 blue and 2 purple marbles (scenario BBPP):
\(P(opposite \ event)=\frac{4!}{2!2!}*\frac{5}{12}*\frac{4}{11}*\frac{4}{10}*\frac{3}{9}=\frac{4}{33}\), we are multiplying by \(\frac{4!}{2!2!}\) as scenario BBPP can occur in several ways: BBPP, PPBB, BPBP, ... So scenario BBPP can occur in \(\frac{4!}{2!2!}\) # of ways (# of permuations of 4 letters BBPP out of which 2 B's and 2 P's are identical);
Or with combinatorics \(P(opposte \ event)=\frac{C^2_5*C^2_4}{C^4_{12}}=\frac{4}{33}\).
So \(P=1-\frac{4}{33}=\frac{29}{33}\).
5 blue marbles, 3 red marbles and 4 purple marbles are placed in a bag. If 4 marbles are drawn WITH replacement, what is the probability that the result will not be 2 blue and 2 purple marbles?Again Calculate the probability of an opposite event and subtract this value from 1.
Opposite event is that out of 4 marbles we will have 2 blue and 2 purple marbles:
\(P(opposite \ event)=\frac{4!}{2!2!}*\frac{5}{12}*\frac{5}{12}*\frac{4}{12}*\frac{4}{12}=\frac{25}{216}\), the same reason to multiply by \(\frac{4!}{2!2!}\);
So \(P=1-\frac{25}{216}=\frac{191}{216}\).
Similar problem:
https://gmatclub.com/forum/probability- ... 55253.htmlHope it helps.
Hello
Bunuel Sir,
2 doubts
1.
When using combinatronics to solve for the opposite case why didn't you multiply by
4!/2!2!
after all applying combinations means just selecting and not arranging
2.
In the new case you presented (WITH replacement) how different would the combinatorics formula be from
2C5*2C4/4C12=4/33
1. The key here is maintaining consistency between the numerator and denominator and understanding what multiplying by 4!/2!2! actually does.
We multiply the probability of drawing BBPP by 4!/2!2! because the BBPP outcome can occur in multiple ways:
- BBPP (first two blue, last two purple)
- PPBB (first two purple, last two blue)
- BPBP, BPBB, etc.
Since these are distinct scenarios, we need to account for all of them when calculating probability.
Now, when using the combinations approach, we calculate C(2,5) * C(2,4) / C(4,12), where:
- The numerator represents the number of ways to select 2 blue and 2 purple marbles.
- The denominator represents the total number of ways to select 4 marbles from 12.
It's crucial to observe that both the numerator and denominator give
unordered groups of 4 marbles (meaning BBPP is counted only once, without considering different orders like BPBP or PPBB).
Therefore, multiplying by 4!/2!2!, which accounts for arrangements, would break the consistency. In the numerator, you'd have the number of groups
considering order, while in the denominator, it would still be
without it. That’s why multiplying by 4!/2!2! does not make sense in the combinations approach.
2. The combinations approach is not good for the with replacement case because combinations involve selecting groups of objects at once, which inherently assumes selection without replacement.