Puzzled by two IR question in Princeton's GMAT.
1) Reward returning customer ≠ Reward for loyalty?Here's the excerpt from the Multi-source Reasoning about bank CD offering (Item 8, IR Drill 1, pg.408-409),
Quote:
"In order to improve and stabilize our bank's investment opportunities, we are seeking to shift the balance of our customers' CD accounts towards those with longer maturity terms. We have begun testing two incentive programs. ... Preferred customers (those who have previously bought CDs of any term length in amounts of $10,000 or more) will receive a bonus of 0.2% during the first year when they purchase a CD with a term of 5 to 10 years in the amount of at least $10,000." The question asks whether the information in the memo supports the following inference,
"Certain bank policies are designed to reward preferred customers for their loyalty." I answered YES, since returning customers (with purchase prior to this) enjoy additional 0.1% bonus.
However, the answer key (NO) states something that I don't understand at all,
"It is true that the stated policy offers a bonus available to preferred customers but not to new customers. There is no reference however to this being a reward for loyalty. Rather, the stated purpose is to increase the overall stability of the bank's portfolio. This statement introduces outside information. "It's ridiculous to say that rewarding returning customers does not equate to rewarding for loyalty. How does Princeton (or GMAC) define "outside information" or "out of scope"?
2) "Near equal" has a range of 3-5% difference? Another Table Analysis in the same drill poses an unacceptable assumption as well (Item 9, IR Drill 1, pg.410-411).
The table displays Popular Vote % and Electoral Vote % of several US presidents.
Quote:
Year | President | Popular | Electoral
2000 | Bush | 47.87% | 50.40%
1960 | Kennedy | 49.72% | 56.40%
1976 | Carter | 50.08% | 55.20%
2004 | Bush | 50.73% | 53.20%
The question asks whether this statement is true,
"The same President was elected in the two election years in which the winner's percentage of the popular vote and percentage of the electoral vote were most nearly equal."I answered NO, as I didn't see any entry within 1% difference.
And yes, the answer turned out to be YES, with the following explanation,
"There are three elections, 2000, 1976, and 2004, in which the two values are within about 5 points of each other ... So 2000 and 2004 are the two years in which the percentage differ the least. Since George W. Bush was elected both years, it is true that ... "How could it be in earth that 3% is considered "most nearly equal"? It is just an unfair assumption.
Really feel lost now. Do I live in a different world from GMAC and the publishers?