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The ancient Romans understood the principles

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New post 28 Mar 2015, 11:58
3
6
00:00
A
B
C
D
E

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  55% (hard)

Question Stats:

63% (02:07) correct 37% (02:15) wrong based on 435 sessions

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The ancient Romans understood the principles of water power very well and in some outlying parts of their empire they made extensive and excellent use of water as an energy sources. This makes it all the more striking that the Romans made do without water power in dominated by large cities.

Which one of the following, if true, contributes most to an explanation of the difference described above in the Romans use of water power?

(A) The ancient Romans were adept at constructing and maintaining aqueducts that could carry quantities of water sufficient to supply large cities over considerable distances

(B) In the areas in which water power was not used water flow in rivers and streams was substantial throughout the year but nevertheless exhibited some seasonal variation

(C) Water power was relatively vulnerable to sabotage but any damage could be quickly and inexpensively repaired

(D) In most areas to which the use of water power was not extended other more traditional sources of energy continued to be used

(E) In heavily populated areas the introduction of water power would have been certain to cause social unrest by depriving large numbers of people of their livelihood

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New post 28 Mar 2015, 16:43
I think its E
I felt both B and E are close , but ,IMO E is better

E) Explains it better Romans use of water power in large cities ------ "loosing large numbers of people of their livelihood".
B) this one didn't explain (why can't it be used for good part of the year and alternates for variation time) --- "water flow in rivers and streams was substantial - but some seasonal variation"
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New post 26 May 2015, 21:58
Could not understand last sentence in premise at all ...
Can some one help here please ?
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New post 23 Jun 2015, 01:36
my doubt here is;

Frankly none of the options fit in properly. Option E "In heavily populated areas the introduction of water power would have been certain to cause social unrest by depriving large numbers of people of their livelihood".
Now this option assumes that large cities are heavily populated. A small city can be heavily populated also, causing the city to be devastated by the wrath of the river.

I chose A for the fact that it states that The ancient Romans were adept at constructing and maintaining aqueducts that could carry quantities of water sufficient to supply large cities over considerable distances. Now the water is sufficient just for communal purposes, not for generating energy. Option E is poorly worded.
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New post 24 Jun 2015, 05:46
souvik101990 wrote:
The ancient Romans understood the principles of water power very well and in some outlying parts of their empire they made extensive and excellent use of water as an energy sources. This makes it all the more striking that the Romans made do without water power in dominated by large cities.

Which one of the following, if true, contributes most to an explanation of the difference described above in the Romans use of water power?

(A) The ancient Romans were adept at constructing and maintaining aqueducts that could carry quantities of water sufficient to supply large cities over considerable distances

(B) In the areas in which water power was not used water flow in rivers and streams was substantial throughout the year but nevertheless exhibited some seasonal variation

(C) Water power was relatively vulnerable to sabotage but any damage could be quickly and inexpensively repaired

(D) In most areas to which the use of water power was not extended other more traditional sources of energy continued to be used

(E) In heavily populated areas the introduction of water power would have been certain to cause social unrest by depriving large numbers of people of their livelihood


Couldnt understand the question - also is this line correct - This makes it all the more striking that the Romans made do without water power in dominated by large cities.

??

Please help
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New post 25 Jun 2015, 07:47
adityadon aimtoteach : The question is that Romans used water as energy source in outlying areas but not in large cities. Why?
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New post 27 Jun 2015, 18:32
You're right, aimtoteach--there are some missing words in the question. It should read "This makes it all the more striking that the Romans made do without water power in regions dominated by large cities." (the-ancient-romans-understood-the-principles-of-water-power-41368.html)

Anyway, this is a Discrepancy question. We're being asked to think about why a civilization that knew and used water power didn't use that technology in large urban areas. Any answer that explains this off discrepancy will be the winner--E gives us a good reason.
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New post 26 Dec 2017, 12:30
arnabs wrote:
my doubt here is;

Frankly none of the options fit in properly. Option E "In heavily populated areas the introduction of water power would have been certain to cause social unrest by depriving large numbers of people of their livelihood".
Now this option assumes that large cities are heavily populated. A small city can be heavily populated also, causing the city to be devastated by the wrath of the river.

I chose A for the fact that it states that The ancient Romans were adept at constructing and maintaining aqueducts that could carry quantities of water sufficient to supply large cities over considerable distances. Now the water is sufficient just for communal purposes, not for generating energy. Option E is poorly worded.


I had the same doubt. And I too marked A because of that. However, if you read the question properly, you would notice that the question is about the usage of water power. Option A merely states that water could be transported to large cities. However, we are not concerned about that. We want to know why water power was not used?
The correct reason was brought up by E which gives a sufficient reason. Hence, I believe that considering the options available, the best choice is E and we have to assume that large cities are highly populated.

Experts - can we have your thoughts on this explanation?
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Re: The ancient Romans understood the principles   [#permalink] 28 Mar 2019, 05:20
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