Hi experts
KarishmaB GMATNinja DmitryFarber277. The passage states that traditional studies of the financial market overlook imbalances in the allocation of financial resources because(A) an optimum allocation of resources is the final result of competition among participantsIn question 277, can we say that option A is wrong as there is
no such causal relationship given in the passage?
If we look at the relevant lines
"Most traditional financial-market analysis studies ignore financial markets' deficiencies in allocation because of analysts' inherent preferences for the simple model of perfect competition.",
we don't see anything indicating on:Competition among participants --> Optimum allocation of resources
Please let me know if my thought process is faltering somewhere.