The origins of the English language can be traced back to the Saxon an

Question

The origins of the English language can be traced back to the Saxon and other Germanic settlers in Britain beginning in the 5th century CE. The English language’s unusual nature can be attributed to the diverse linguistic origins of the groups that contributed to its development and their role in English society. Although English belongs to the Germanic language family and its grammatical and syntactical rules reflect this, English vocabulary can be seen to be from multiple origins. In fact, a Large part of the vocabulary was not derived from the Germanic languages at all but is rather of Latin origin. This can be explained by the influence on Old English of Old French and Latin during the Norman Invasion in the 11th century. By the time of the Norman Invasion, Old English was already a language, with both its grammar and vocabulary based in the Germanic language family. However, the establishment of a ruling class who spoke a Romance language caused significant changes in the indigenous tongue. It is also interesting to note that there is a distinct correlation between the length of a word and its origin—most of the shorter words in the English language are derived from the Germanic languages, whereas the longer words are from a Latin background. One theory to explain this is that these more elaborate and complex words were primarily used by the elite after the Norman Invasion—who would have favored a Latin-based (or Romance) vocabulary—whereas words with the same meaning in the Old English were used primarily by the lower classes and thus fell into disuse. Modern English words, then, concerning more complex and theoretical rather than utilitarian ideas (astronomy, poetry, and epistemology), can generally be found to be of Romance origin, whereas more mundane words, such as pronouns and auxiliary verbs, can be traced back to a Germanic origin.    1 
 1. Which of the following is implied by the passage?

A. English was more heavily influenced by Germanic languages than by Romance languages.
B. In the 11th century, English speakers of the lower classes did not discuss abstract, theoretical topics.
C. No auxiliary verbs in English can be traced back to a Latin-based origin.
D. English owes some of its abnormality to the Norman Invasion.
E. Fewer words in English are derived from Latin than from the Germanic languages.

2  
 Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

2. The passage suggests that the word “they,” a pronoun, would most likely have which of the following origins? 
A .Germanic
B. Romance
C. Norse

3  
 3. Based on the passage, what is a likely reason why English has not been reclassified as a Romance language?

A. It developed as a Germanic language in its first incarnation, Old English.
B. The core of the language, its grammar and syntax, is still Germanic.
C. A larger portion of the English vocabulary is Germanic rather than Romance.
D. The Normans felt an affinity for the local tongue, which was Germanic.
E. Neither linguistic heritage has a claim to preeminence.

4  
 Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

4. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. Searching for meaning based on the Latin root of a word is less likely to be useful in shorter words.
B. The language spoken by the Saxon and Germanic settlers entirely supplanted the indigenous tongue of 5th-century Britain.
C. The discussion of complex ideas during the Norman era in England was primarily the domain of the ruling class.

Sajjad1994 · Answer

OE

1. Which of the following is implied by the passage?

This question is an Inference question. Therefore, we must eliminate the answer choices that don’t necessarily follow from the passage.

(A)  is incorrect because we can’t say with certainty that Germanic languages had a greater influence than Romance languages did. Yes, the Germanic influence came first and had a greater influence on grammar, but that does not mean its influence on English as a whole is greater.

(B)  is out of scope and extreme. Nothing suggests that the lower classes could never discuss abstract theoretical topics.

For  (C) , although we are told most mundane words, like auxiliary verbs, are of Germanic origin, that doesn’t mean that all auxiliary words must be of Germanic origin.

(E)  is also incorrect because we aren’t given any clues as to how many words are derived from each language family.

(D)  is correct because it’s directly implied in the passage. The second sentence says that English has an  “unusual nature,”  and the passage goes on to state that this is due to its vocabulary stemming from multiple origins, such as what was brought over by the Norman Invasion. 
 
  Answer: D

Sajjad1994 · Answer

OE

2. The passage suggests that the word “they,” a pronoun, would most likely have which of the following origins?

The question states that  “they”  is a pronoun, so look in the passage for clues as to where pronouns are likely to be derived. The final sentence explicitly states that English pronouns are of Germanic origin, so you can safely select  (A)  as your answer. Although Old English and Norse are related, this is not mentioned in the passage, and  choice (C)  is meant as a distractor. 
 
  Answer: A

Sajjad1994 · Answer

OE

3. Based on the passage, what is a likely reason why English has not been reclassified as a Romance language?

To answer this question, you are required to make a small inference from the text. The third sentence begins with a detour road sign,  “Although,”  which indicates that the immediately following clause is a fact—in this case that English is a part of the Germanic language family and that the rules governing its structure reflect this. From this you can infer that the structural rules of a language are significant in its classification, which tells you that answer  choice (B)  is correct.

(A)  is factually correct, but there is no indication that the language’s first incarnation is related to its current classification, so you cannot accept that as an explanation based on the passage.

(C)  concerns the balance of vocabulary origins between Germanic and Romance, but while the passage does speak of this at length, no mention of number of words as related to the classification of the language is made.

(D)  is not an option, as the Normans regarded English as lower class.

(E)  is incorrect, as the core of the language is noted to be Germanic. (B) is the correct choice. 
 
  Answer: B

Sajjad1994 · Answer

OE

4. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

As always, you must be careful about what you infer from a passage. For answer  choice (A) , you would need to find something in the text that would suggest that the shorter the word, the less likely it may be derived from Latin—which you can find in the third-to-last sentence. There is no mention of the indigenous language before the arrival of the Germanic peoples, so you can dismiss  (B) .

(C)  might seem tempting because the author notes that the words used for complex ideas today are primarily those that were used by the ruling class. However, while discussing complex ideas might seem more likely to be the habit of those with leisure time and education, the passage does not specify anything that would allow us to draw this conclusion, and  (C)  must be rejected. 
 
  Answer: A

The origins of the English language can be traced back to the Saxon an

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