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rohan2345
The political masters of the health care system have not listened to professional health planners because it has not been profitable for them to do that thing.

(A) has not been profitable for them to do that thing.
(B) has not been profitable for them to do so.
(C) has been unprofitable for them to do that thing.
(D) has been unprofitable for them to do so.
(E) doing so had not been profitable for them.


Why B not D ...how it changes the meaning...need help..

In Merriam webster i found this:

Definition of unprofitable
: not profitable : producing no gain, good, or result an unprofitable venture
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pls any expert clarify the diff between 'has been not profitable' and 'has not been profitable'.....
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rohan2345
The political masters of the health care system have not listened to professional health planners because it has not been profitable for them to do that thing.

(A) has not been profitable for them to do that thing.
(B) has not been profitable for them to do so.
(C) has been unprofitable for them to do that thing.
(D) has been unprofitable for them to do so.
(E) doing so had not been profitable for them.


experts pls clarify diff btw 'has not been' and 'has been not'
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daagh Can you please look at this once?
I chose D for being more concise. The OA is B.
Please help.
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(B) has not been profitable for them to do so.
B simply means that the proposal has not been yielding any profit or gain. Please do not mistake this as equal to making losses. It may just be neutral or making no loss or no profit. A politician is not interested if there is no guaranteed money in it. On the contrary,

(D) has been unprofitable for them to do so.
D means that it is a straightforward loss.
Therefore, it looks plausible that B might be a better choice than D.
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rohan2345
The political masters of the health care system have not listened to professional health planners because it has not been profitable for them to do that thing.

(A) has not been profitable for them to do that thing.
(B) has not been profitable for them to do so.
(C) has been unprofitable for them to do that thing.
(D) has been unprofitable for them to do so.
(E) doing so had not been profitable for them.


experts pls clarify diff btw 'has not been' and 'has been not'

The usage 'has not been" is correct. Introducing the negation word ('not') between the auxiliary verb ('has') and the main verb is the standard practice.
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rohan2345
The political masters of the health care system have not listened to professional health planners because it has not been profitable for them to do that thing.

(A) has not been profitable for them to do that thing.
(B) has not been profitable for them to do so.
(C) has been unprofitable for them to do that thing.
(D) has been unprofitable for them to do so.
(E) doing so had not been profitable for them.

I don,t think there is any difference between "non-profitable and unprofitable."

The dictionary meaning of unprofitable is non-profitable.
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