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The purpose of a general theory of art is to explain every aesthetic f

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The purpose of a general theory of art is to explain every aesthetic f  [#permalink]

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New post Updated on: 30 Aug 2017, 04:35
4
18
00:00
A
B
C
D
E

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  95% (hard)

Question Stats:

49% (02:20) correct 51% (02:25) wrong based on 535 sessions

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The purpose of a general theory of art is to explain every aesthetic feature that is found in any of the arts. Pre-modern general theories of art, however, focused primarily on painting and sculpture. Every pre-modern general theory of art, even those that succeed as theories of painting or sculpture, fails to explain some aesthetic feature of music.

The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of following?

(A) Any general theory of art that explains the aesthetic features of painting also explains those of sculpture.
(B) A general theory of art that explains every aesthetic feature of music will achieve its purpose.
(C) Any theory of art that focus primarily on sculpture or painting cannot explain every aesthetic feature of music.
(D) No pre-modern general theory of art achieves its purpose unless music is not art.
(E) No pre-modern general theory of art explains any aesthetic feature of music that is not shared with painting and sculpture.

Source : PrepTest 36 - December 2001 LSAT #Q17

Originally posted by GMATFIGHTER on 12 Mar 2010, 21:05.
Last edited by hazelnut on 30 Aug 2017, 04:35, edited 2 times in total.
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Re: The purpose of a general theory of art is to explain every aesthetic f  [#permalink]

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New post 12 Mar 2010, 23:59
I think its D.

Basically the stimulus says =>
- General theory of art should explain every aesthetic feature in any of the arts.
- Pre-modern general theories focused primarily on painting and sculpture.
- Even those pre-modern theories that succeed (in being called a general theory of art) fails to explain some aesthetic feature of music.

This would make it seem that no pre modern theory of art fulfills the condition to be a general theory of art unless we exempt music from the category of art.

What is the OA?
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Re: The purpose of a general theory of art is to explain every aesthetic f  [#permalink]

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New post 13 Mar 2010, 14:37
sidhu4u wrote:
I think its D.

Basically the stimulus says =>
- General theory of art should explain every aesthetic feature in any of the arts.
- Pre-modern general theories focused primarily on painting and sculpture.
- Even those pre-modern theories that succeed (in being called a general theory of art) fails to explain some aesthetic feature of music.

This would make it seem that no pre modern theory of art fulfills the condition to be a general theory of art unless we exempt music from the category of art.

What is the OA?


Same as your logic ... but i was hoping for C .

You may be right but to me D appeared to be too strong of a comment, something which is generally not seen on GMAT.

All depends on the source and OA .
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New post 14 Mar 2010, 03:59
TheBlessedOne wrote:
sidhu4u wrote:
I think its D.

Basically the stimulus says =>
- General theory of art should explain every aesthetic feature in any of the arts.
- Pre-modern general theories focused primarily on painting and sculpture.
- Even those pre-modern theories that succeed (in being called a general theory of art) fails to explain some aesthetic feature of music.

This would make it seem that no pre modern theory of art fulfills the condition to be a general theory of art unless we exempt music from the category of art.

What is the OA?


Same as your logic ... but i was hoping for C .

You may be right but to me D appeared to be too strong of a comment, something which is generally not seen on GMAT.

All depends on the source and OA .


I excluded C because c) Any theory of art that focuses primarily on sculpture and painting cannot explain every aesthetic feature of music.
Both are rather strong which like you said is generally not seen on the GMAT.
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New post 14 Mar 2010, 15:40
The answer is D.

The question's logic flows as such:

1) General theory of art -> explains all aspects of art
2) Pre-modern theory of art explains only paint and sculpture

Now the answer D goes on to say that for pre-modern theory of art to fulfill its purpose, it must include music if it's an art. That was a necessary condition in 1). Alas, the question states this in a tricky way by using No pre-modern theory... unless music isn't an art. This can be converted into If pre-modern theory... then music isn't an art.
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New post 16 Mar 2010, 10:45
I think the answer is D.

Used the same logic as Exellon's.
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New post 16 Mar 2010, 12:01
The purpose of a general theory of art is to explain every aesthetic feature that is found in any of the arts. Pre-modern general theories of art, however, focused primarily on painting and sculpture. Every pre-modern general theory of art, even those that succeed as theories of painting and sculpture, fails to explain some aesthetic feature of music.

IMO:
c) Any theory of art that focuses primarily on sculpture and painting cannot explain every aesthetic feature of music. - this is the only stmt supports the underlined..IMO
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New post 16 Mar 2010, 12:12
amma4u wrote:
The purpose of a general theory of art is to explain every aesthetic feature that is found in any of the arts. Pre-modern general theories of art, however, focused primarily on painting and sculpture. Every pre-modern general theory of art, even those that succeed as theories of painting and sculpture, fails to explain some aesthetic feature of music.

IMO:
c) Any theory of art that focuses primarily on sculpture and painting cannot explain every aesthetic feature of music. - this is the only stmt supports the underlined..IMO


Except c) generealizes further to "any theory of art" and not just "every pre-modern general theory of art".
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New post 16 Mar 2010, 12:44
Tx Exellon..yeah I see it now..as you said c) generalizes.
I had to read the question with d) several times to understand...keeping you response in mind

BTW nice profile pic! :-D I am huge animal person...had to say it
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New post 18 Mar 2010, 09:13
well done guys. You guys are really good....loool.....the OA is D
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Re: The purpose of a general theory of art is to explain every aesthetic f  [#permalink]

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New post 18 Mar 2010, 09:24
Exellon wrote:
The answer is D.

The question's logic flows as such:

1) General theory of art -> explains all aspects of art
2) Pre-modern theory of art explains only paint and sculpture

Now the answer D goes on to say that for pre-modern theory of art to fulfill its purpose, it must include music if it's an art. That was a necessary condition in 1). Alas, the question states this in a tricky way by using No pre-modern theory... unless music isn't an art. This can be converted into If pre-modern theory... then music isn't an art.


"music isn't an art"? or should it be "music is an art"? please explain because I'm lost here.
thanks!
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New post 18 Mar 2010, 12:17
GMATFIGHTER wrote:
Exellon wrote:
The answer is D.

The question's logic flows as such:

1) General theory of art -> explains all aspects of art
2) Pre-modern theory of art explains only paint and sculpture

Now the answer D goes on to say that for pre-modern theory of art to fulfill its purpose, it must include music if it's an art. That was a necessary condition in 1). Alas, the question states this in a tricky way by using No pre-modern theory... unless music isn't an art. This can be converted into If pre-modern theory... then music isn't an art.


"music isn't an art"? or should it be "music is an art"? please explain because I'm lost here.
thanks!


A unless B can be turned into the typical "If not A then B" and is usually how I do it.

So No pre-modern theory ... unless music isn't an art can can be turned into If no pre-modern theory ... then music isn't an art.
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Re: The purpose of a general theory of art is to explain every aesthetic f  [#permalink]

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New post 30 Apr 2011, 14:10
Guys, I understand why it is D but am failing to rule out B. Is B not also true? If a general theory of art that explains every feature of music then the purpose has been achieved?

Please help...

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New post 10 Aug 2014, 02:05
I misinterpreted the question as a strengthen type and marked E as the answer. Hypothetically, if it were a strengthen question, would E do the job?
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Re: The purpose of a general theory of art is to explain every aesthetic f  [#permalink]

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New post 08 Nov 2014, 23:24
why not A..?

if a theory is being called "general theory of art, then it must be succeeding at explaining every aesthetic feature of painting as well as sculpture..?
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Re: The purpose of a general theory of art is to explain every aesthetic f  [#permalink]

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New post 08 Oct 2015, 03:32
2
The purpose of a general theory of art is to explain every aesthetic feature that is found in any of the arts.

Pre-modern general theories of art, however, focused primarily on painting and sculpture.

Every pre-modern general theory of art, even those that succeed as theories of painting and sculpture, fails to explain some aesthetic feature of music.

The statement above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following?

a) Any general theory of art that explains the aesthetic features of painting also explains those of sculpture.
(The purpose of an art is to explain every feature of every art. but as we have an exceptional case of music we can say that not every gen theory of art can fulfill its purpose or explain every feature in nay art. This cannot be true for sure.)

b) A general theory of art that explains every aesthetic feature of music will achieve its purpose.
(The purpose of general theory of art is to explain every aesthetic feature of any art not only music. Not true.)

c) Any theory of art that focuses primarily on sculpture and painting cannot explain every aesthetic feature of music.
(This is the case of Pre-modern theories but does not apply for any theory of art. This is the case of extreme inference.)

d) No pre-modern general theory of art achieves its purpose unless music is not art.
(This means that any Pre-modern theory does not achieve its purpose if music is an art. Just like unless sth is not false means sth is true,Unless music is not art means music is art.)

e) No pre-modern general theory of art explains any aesthetic features of music that are not shared with painting and sculpture.
(No sharing between music and painting and sculpture is mentioned in the argument.
pre-modern general theory of art does not explain some features of music not any or all. Not true based on argument.)
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New post 03 Jul 2018, 07:43
1
The correct answer is (D).
(A) is not supported by the statements. We do not have enough information to make this claim about any GTA. Would it be possible, given these statements, for GTA to explain painting but NOT explain sculpture (or vice versa)? Absolutely-the statements say only that pre-modern theories focused "primarily" on painting and sculpture, and that "some" pre-modern theories succeeded for painting and sculpture. Eliminate.

(B) is not supported by the statements. What if the theory explained every feature of music but did not explain every feature of painting and sculpture (or other arts)? Eliminate.

(C) is not supported by the statements. If the word "any" were replaced with "some" we would have our answer, but we do not have enough information to make this claim about "any" GTA. What about non-pre-modern GTA that focused on painting and sculpture? We don't know anything about them, and there's nothing that says they couldn't fully explain music's aesthetic features. Eliminate.

(E) is tempting because it combines many of the words from the passage, throwing in a "no" and a "not" to confuse us more. But look at exactly what this choice says. All we know about music/pre-modern GTA is that pre-modern GTA did not fully explain music-meaning there was at least one feature of music that couldn't be explained by those theories. Does that mean those theories did not explain any parts of music that didn't overlap with painting and sculpture? Absolutely not
.


Choice (D) combines what we know about premodern GTA (that they failed to fully explain some aesthetic feature of music) and the purpose of GTA-to explain fully all aesthetic features of the arts. If music is an art, then a premodern GTA cannot fulfill its purpose, so a premodern GTA cannot achieve its purpose unless we exclude music as a category. This is our answer.


If you like my explanation, Please KUDOS. Thanks!
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Re: The purpose of a general theory of art is to explain every aesthetic f  [#permalink]

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New post 04 Jul 2018, 10:15
Took me 2:52 and answered correctly. is that too slow?
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