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605-655 (Medium)|   Conclusion|         
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jabhatta2
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The quality of unrefined olive oil is not actually defined Updated on: 02 Feb 2022, 15:27
Originally posted by jabhatta2 on 02 Feb 2022, 15:06.
Last edited by jabhatta2 on 02 Feb 2022, 15:27, edited 3 times in total.
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Can one infer # 1

Quote:
All else being equal, Lower free oleic acid , acidity is lower ?
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I think this inference CAN be made
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jabhatta2
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The quality of unrefined olive oil is not actually defined 02 Feb 2022, 15:16
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Can one infer # 2

Quote:
Lower acidity , quality is better ?
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I think we can make this inference based on the question stem if we connect the dots.

Its another thing all-together that this inference {Lower acidity , quality is better} is not implemented in the real world but i think if we connect the dots in the question stem -- one CAN make this inference .

thoughts ?
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The quality of unrefined olive oil is not actually defined 02 Feb 2022, 20:38
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jabhatta2
Can one infer # 1

Quote:
All else being equal, Lower free oleic acid , acidity is lower ?

I think this inference CAN be made
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Yes, jabhatta2, this sentence:
The proportion of free oleic acid that an olive oil contains is an accurate measure of the oil’s acidity
implies that a Lower free oleic acid [as a proportion of the olive oil] means that acidity is lower.
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The quality of unrefined olive oil is not actually defined 02 Feb 2022, 20:43
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jabhatta2
Can one infer # 2

Quote:
Lower acidity , quality is better ?
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Yes, jabhatta2, this sentence:
extensive tests have shown that the less free oleic acid an unrefined olive oil contains per liter, the higher its quality
, in combination with your previous inference, implies that lower acidity leads to higher quality.

So overall, we know that lower proportion of free oleic acid that an olive oil contains == the oil’s acidity and we know that lower proportion of free oleic acid that an olive oil contains == higher quality.
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The quality of unrefined olive oil is not actually defined 02 Feb 2022, 20:47
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thanks avigutman - I was wondering, if you would CONNECT these dots BEFORE going into the answer choices correct ?

Almost like a DS re-phrasing

I ask because I notice one doesnt have to connect the dots (make such inferences) to get to the OA.

The answer choice turned out to be something that didnt need connecting the 3 different sentences..
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The quality of unrefined olive oil is not actually defined 02 Feb 2022, 20:55
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jabhatta2
thanks avigutman - I was wondering, if you would CONNECT these dots BEFORE going into the answer choices correct ?

Almost like a DS re-phrasing

I ask because I notice one doesnt have to connect the dots (make such inferences) to get to the OA.

The answer choice turned out to be something that didnt need connecting the 3 different sentences..
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Yes, jabhatta2, I do connect the dots before going to the answer choices.
And, please take another look: I think you'll find that the OA does in fact require connecting the dots.
I don't think I've ever seen an official inference question that didn't require connecting the dots.
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The quality of unrefined olive oil is not actually defined 31 Aug 2023, 01:10
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@KarishmaB
Ma'am, please explain why is A wrong.
When we refine olive oil, we want to increase the quality. The quality is enhanced if the oelic acid is reduced.
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The quality of unrefined olive oil is not actually defined 01 Sep 2023, 01:49
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@KarishmaB
Ma'am, please explain why is A wrong.
When we refine olive oil, we want to increase the quality. The quality is enhanced if the oelic acid is reduced.
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Note that our argument is talking about 'unrefined olive oil.'
We are not given anything about refined olive oil. Nothing is given about why refining is done and how it affects the olive oil. 'Refined' is not equal to 'better quality.' 'Unrefined oil' and 'Refined oil' are actually different products.
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The quality of unrefined olive oil is not actually defined 26 Jun 2024, 22:04
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The quality of unrefined olive oil is not actually defined in terms of acidity, yet extensive tests have shown that the less free oleic acid an unrefined olive oil contains per liter, the higher its quality. The proportion of free oleic acid that an olive oil contains is an accurate measure of the oil’s acidity.

If the statements above are all true, which of the following conclusions is best supported by them?

A. When an olive oil is refined, the concentration of oleic acid in the oil is reduced.
B. The quality of an unrefined olive oil can be determined only by accurately measuring its acidity.
C. If an unrefined olive oil is intermediate in acidity between two other unrefined olive oils, it will also be intermediate between them in quality.
D. Free oleic acid is the only acid that unrefined olive oil contains.
E. People who judge the quality of unrefined olive oils actually judge those oils by their acidity, which the judges can taste.
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­
Premises:

The quality of unrefined olive oil is not actually defined in terms of acidity

Extensive tests have shown that the less free oleic acid an unrefined olive oil contains per liter, the higher its quality. 

The proportion of free oleic acid that an olive oil contains is an accurate measure of the oil’s acidity.

We are given that practically, quality is not defined in terms of acidity but higher quality oil has less free oleic acid (a measure of acidity). 
We need to find the conclusion supported by these premises.

(A)    When an olive oil is refined, the concentration of oleic acid in the oil is reduced.

We don’t know what happens on refining. 



(B)    The quality of an unrefined olive oil can be determined only by accurately measuring its acidity.



There could be many other ways of measuring quality of unrefined olive oil.



(C)    If an unrefined olive oil is intermediate in acidity between two other unrefined olive oils, it will also be intermediate between them in quality.


Correct. The premises tell us that acidity is a fair measure of quality. 

(D)    Free oleic acid is the only acid that unrefined olive oil contains.

No such information in the argument. 

(E)    People who judge the quality of unrefined olive oils actually judge those oils by their acidity, which the judges can taste.

We are given that quality is not defined in terms of acidity so the judges would not be judging their acidity. 

Answer (C)

Discussion on Inference Questions: https://youtu.be/PMnU9ULdSfs­
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The quality of unrefined olive oil is not actually defined 26 Jun 2024, 22:22
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I think, a more simple way to eliminate (A) can be that argument talks about ''free oleic acid'', on the other hand option (A) talks about ''oleic acid'' in general.
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The quality of unrefined olive oil is not actually defined 14 Jun 2026, 02:15
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I have a doubt about C. The passage says free oleic acid is an accurate measure of acidity, and less free oleic acid means higher quality. But why can we assume that differences in acidity are entirely due to free oleic acid?

Couldn't two oils have the same free oleic acid content (and thus the same quality) but different acidity because of other acids present? If so, does C require an additional assumption that free oleic acid fully captures acidity?
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The quality of unrefined olive oil is not actually defined 14 Jun 2026, 06:00
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yashhw
I have a doubt about C. The passage says free oleic acid is an accurate measure of acidity, and less free oleic acid means higher quality. But why can we assume that differences in acidity are entirely due to free oleic acid?

Couldn't two oils have the same free oleic acid content (and thus the same quality) but different acidity because of other acids present? If so, does C require an additional assumption that free oleic acid fully captures acidity?
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No, C does not need an extra assumption.

The passage explicitly says that the proportion of free oleic acid is an accurate measure of the oil’s acidity. So, for this argument, acidity is being measured through free oleic acid.

If two oils had the same free oleic acid but different acidity because of other acids, then free oleic acid would not be an accurate measure of acidity. That would contradict the given information.

So intermediate acidity means intermediate free oleic acid, and since less free oleic acid means higher quality, the oil will also be intermediate in quality.
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The quality of unrefined olive oil is not actually defined 15 Jun 2026, 06:39
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yashhw
I have a doubt about C. The passage says free oleic acid is an accurate measure of acidity, and less free oleic acid means higher quality. But why can we assume that differences in acidity are entirely due to free oleic acid?

Couldn't two oils have the same free oleic acid content (and thus the same quality) but different acidity because of other acids present? If so, does C require an additional assumption that free oleic acid fully captures acidity?
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We are given

"The proportion of free oleic acid that an olive oil contains is an accurate measure of the oil’s acidity."

So acidity comes from proportion of free oleic acid only. This is given to be true. Note the question stem "If the statements above are all true, which ..."
If other acids were to change the acidity of the oil, then you cannot say that oleic acid is an accurate measure of acidity.
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The quality of unrefined olive oil is not actually defined 16 Jun 2026, 06:40
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Hi yashhw,

Your instinct to hunt for a hidden assumption is exactly the right CR habit. But here the worry is already closed off by the third sentence, so let me point to the exact phrase.

The passage doesn't just say free oleic acid contributes to acidity. It says:

"The proportion of free oleic acid that an olive oil contains is an accurate measure of the oil's acidity."

That phrase "accurate measure" is the whole game. If free oleic acid is an accurate measure of acidity, then knowing the free oleic acid tells you the acidity - exactly. The two move together, one-to-one. So your scenario - two oils with the same free oleic acid but different acidity - can't happen under this premise. If it could, free oleic acid would be an inaccurate measure, contradicting what we're told to accept as true.

Once free oleic acid and acidity track each other perfectly, the chain is locked:

- acidity ↔ free oleic acid (accurate measure)
- more free oleic acid → lower quality (the tests)
- so intermediate acidity → intermediate free oleic acid → intermediate quality = choice C

No extra assumption needed; "accurate measure" supplies it.

A quick parallel to lock the feel of "accurate measure":

A thermometer reading is an accurate measure of temperature.

- If two rooms show the same reading, can they have different temperatures? No - that's what "accurate" rules out.
- Now turn the knob: if the passage had said free oleic acid is "one factor in" acidity instead of an "accurate measure," then your objection would land and C would fail.

That single phrase is doing exactly the work you felt was missing.

Answer: C

yashhw
I have a doubt about C. The passage says free oleic acid is an accurate measure of acidity, and less free oleic acid means higher quality. But why can we assume that differences in acidity are entirely due to free oleic acid?

Couldn't two oils have the same free oleic acid content (and thus the same quality) but different acidity because of other acids present? If so, does C require an additional assumption that free oleic acid fully captures acidity?
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