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Product of integers is odd, when all of them are odd numbers.
There are 1008 odd numbers from 1 to 2016

the probability p that the product of the three integers is odd= (\(\frac{1008}{2016}\))*(\(\frac{1007}{2015}\))*(\(\frac{1006}{2014}\))
p=\(\frac{(1008*1007*1006)}{(2016*2015*2014)}\)
p={\(\frac{1}{4}\)}*(\(\frac{1006}{2015}\))

\(\frac{1006}{2015}\)<\(\frac{1007.5}{2015}\)
Hence p= \(\frac{1}{4*2.xyz}\)
p<1/8





greenisthecolor
I took way too much time to solve this. Could someone tell me a quick way to solve this?
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The probability our first selection is odd is 1/2. But if we're doing things without replacement, once we remove that first odd number, the probability the next is odd will be slightly less than 1/2, because now less than half of our numbers are odd. And the probability the third is odd again is even smaller than that. So the probability all three are odd will be less than (1/2)(1/2)(1/2) = 1/8 and A is the answer.
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I took way too much time to solve this. Could someone tell me a quick way to solve this?

I tried to solve and reduce the fractions too, but then realized that should there have been replacement (i.e. numbers would be brought back to 2016 after each selection) the probability would have been exactly 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/8.

Now as a general rule of thumb when the same number is added or subtracted to/from both the numerator and denominator, the resulting fraction will always have a greater or lower value respectively. Because there is no replacement each time a number is selected, we know that the absolute value of the fraction is decreasing after each selection. If with replacement we know the probability would have been 1/8, then without replacement it should be \(p<\frac{1}{8}\).

Hope this helps. :)
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aliakberza

Now as a general rule of thumb when the same number is added or subtracted to/from both the numerator and denominator, the resulting fraction will always have a greater or lower value respectively.

That is true only when the overall value of the fraction is less than 1 (and when everything is positive). If you instead start with a fraction like 3/2, and you add 1 to the numerator and denominator, you'll see that the value drops. And if any numbers might be negative, the rules are a lot more complicated.
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aliakberza

Now as a general rule of thumb when the same number is added or subtracted to/from both the numerator and denominator, the resulting fraction will always have a greater or lower value respectively.

That is true only when the overall value of the fraction is less than 1 (and when everything is positive). If you instead start with a fraction like 3/2, and you add 1 to the numerator and denominator, you'll see that the value drops. And if any numbers might be negative, the rules are a lot more complicated.

Correct. Thanks for the input. IanStewart :)
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Bunuel
Three distinct integers are selected at random between 1 and 2016, inclusive (without replacement). Which of the following is a correct statement about the probability p that the product of the three integers is odd?

(A) p < 1/8
(B) p = 1/8
(C) 1/8 < p < 1/3
(D) p = 1/3
(E) p > 1/3

In order for the product of the three integer to be odd, each integer must be odd. There are 1008 odd integers from 1 to 2016, inclusive, so P(odd and odd and odd) = 1008/2016 x 1007/2015 x 1006/2014.

We see that 1008/2016 is exactly 1/2. Although 1007/2015 and 1006/2014 are not exactly 1/2, they are very close to 1/2. Therefore, the probability of selecting 3 odd numbers is approximately ½ x ½ x ½ = ⅛. Finally, because 1007/2015 and 1006/2014 are each slightly less than ½, the probability sought will be slightly less than ⅛.

Answer: A
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