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Bunuel
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Bunuel
In the sequence a1,a2,…,an,…, \(a_1=x\) and \(a_n=y-z*a_{n-1}\) for all n>1. Is \(a_3>a_2\)?

(1) z > y^2 + 2
(2) x > y/(z+1)


i]Kudos for a correct solution.[/i]

\(a_3=y-z*a_{2}\)
\(a_2=y-z*x\)

reworded, \(y-z*a_{2}\) \(>\) \(y-z*x\)?
or
\(x\) \(>\) \(y/(z+1)\) ?

Statement 1: Insufficient as it doesn't even contain x.

Statement 2: Exactly what we're looking for. Sufficient

Answer: B
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\(a2=y-z*x\)
\(a3=y-z*(y-z*x)=y-z*y+z^2*x\)
in order to have \(a3> a2\)

\(y-z*y+z^2*x>y-z*x\)
which after simplifying becomes
\(y-z*x<x\)
\(y<x+z*x\)
\(y<x*(1+z)\)
(1) insufficient as it does not tells us about x
(2) sufficient as its the expression we need to prove \(a3>a2\)

hence B.
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Bunuel
In the sequence a1,a2,…,an,…, \(a_1=x\) and \(a_n=y-z*a_{n-1}\) for all n>1. Is \(a_3>a_2\)?

(1) z > y^2 + 2
(2) x > y/(z+1)


Kudos for a correct solution.


---

a little more calculation intensive method :

Here a3=y-z*a2=y-z(y-z*a1)= y*(1-z) + z^2 * x ( here substituting a1 =x)

a2= y-z*x

a3- a2 = [ y*(1-z) + z^2 * x ] - y-z*x = z (x(1+z)-y).

Now a3- a2 > 0 , then z (x(1+z)-y) > 0 or z > 0 and (x(1+z)-y) >0 ( or x > y/(1+z) )

Now 1) says (1) z > y^2 + 2 or z> 0

and 2) says x > y/(1+z) ( which is what we want)

Hence combining 1 and 2, a3-a2 > 0 or a3 > a2
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