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bschool83
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I still feel it's (C). "Were responsible for the early European settlement in both Australia and the United States" to me sounds like the British were responsible for a single "early European settlement" (using settlement as a noun) rather than "to settle".

So what's the OA?
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Idiomatically settlement "of" is correct. Therefore eliminate B and D.

A. 'is having' incorrect
E. convoluted pronouns and antecedent

C is correct, because both nations has clear antecedents Australia and the United States, and parallel verb structure 'has'
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bschool83
Although the British were responsible for the early European settlement of both Australia and the United States, Australia is having much closer political and cultural links with Britain than the United States is having.

a) of both Australia and the United States, Australia is having much closer political and cultural links with Britain than the United States is having
b) in both Australia and the United States, they are closer in their political and cultural links in Australia than in the United States
c) of both nations, Australia has much closer political and cultural links to Britain than the United States has
d) in both nations, Australia is politically and culturally linked to Britain in a much closer fashion than the United States
e) of both Australia and the United States, they have much closer political and cultural links to it than the United States has


a) Australia is having ............ is wrong.

b) What is "they" refers to? Unclear and ambiguous

c) "of both nations" refer to Australia and United States
"Australia has" ll "United States has" - correct llism

d) "fashion" is incorrect and also wrong comparison

e) completely wrong and illogical comparision
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Two things I'm confused about between C and D:
1. What is the difference between "settlement OF both nations" and "settlement IN both nations"? Should this affect our decision when choosing between C and D?
2. In C, what is the difference between "...Australia has much closer political and cultural links to Britain than the United States HAS" vs "...Australia has much closer political and cultural links to Britain than the United States DOES"? When is it ok to use does and when is it ok to use has? (Please see example below)

Example:
I have much closer ties to my mom than my sister DOES.
and
I have had much closer ties to my mom than my sister HAS.

Any help is appreciated!
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daagh
of both Australia and the United States, Australia is having much closer political and cultural links with Britain than the United States is having;--- ‘links with’ seems to be the right idiom. Must be the correct choice.

In both Australia and the United States, they are closer in their political and cultural links in Australia than in the United States – Obviously they refers to the distant ‘The British’; but ‘links in’ seems to be a wrong idiom

of both nations, Australia has much closer political and cultural links to Britain than the United States has – ‘links to’ Britain is awkward; further we have to stretch out to get that both nations refers to Australia and the United States.

in both nations, Australia is politically and culturally linked to Britain in a much closer fashion than the United States – linked to is wrong idiom; further when you say ‘linked to Britain’, you have to say than to the US

of both Australia and the United States, they have much closer political and cultural links to it than the United States has – terrible; wht do ‘they’ and ‘it’ refer to?
I will go with A


linked to is correct idiom in american english
please dont confuse students with vague reasoning
our job is to get reasoning for right answere not test integrity of GMAT ques
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Although the British were responsible for the early European settlement of both Australia and the United States, Australia is having much closer political and cultural links with Britain than the United States is having.


A. of both Australia and the United States, Australia is having much closer political and cultural links with Britain than the United States is having
Correctly uses "of" in settlement "Settlement of"
Correctly uses the expression Both X and Y

Incorrectly uses "in having" to state a fact. It is better to use simple present to state a fact.


B. in both Australia and the United States, they are closer in their political and cultural links in Australia than in the United States
Incorrect idiomatic expression "Settlement in"
Who is the "they" referring to?


C. of both nations, Australia has much closer political and cultural links to Britain than the United States has
Correctly uses "of" in settlement "Settlement of"
Uses the correct verb tense and completes the comparison


D. in both nations, Australia is politically and culturally linked to Britain in a much closer fashion than the United States
Incorrect idiomatic expression "Settlement in"

E. of both Australia and the United States, they have much closer political and cultural links to it than the United States has
Correctly uses "of" in settlement "Settlement of"
Who is the "they" referring to?
Who is the "it" referring to?
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how can we determine in C that, both refers to Aus and the U.S.?
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zeyneptuzun
Two things I'm confused about between C and D:
1. What is the difference between "settlement OF both nations" and "settlement IN both nations"? Should this affect our decision when choosing between C and D?
2. In C, what is the difference between "...Australia has much closer political and cultural links to Britain than the United States HAS" vs "...Australia has much closer political and cultural links to Britain than the United States DOES"? When is it ok to use does and when is it ok to use has? (Please see example below)

Example:
I have much closer ties to my mom than my sister DOES.
and
I have had much closer ties to my mom than my sister HAS.

Any help is appreciated!
Yes I have the same doubt about DOES and HAS. Anybody can throw some light?
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