Is p q? (1) p/q 1 (2) (p - q)/q (p - q)/p

Question

Is p > q?

(1)  \frac{p}{q} > 1

(2)  \frac{(p-q)}{q} > \frac{(p-q)}{p}

niks18 · Accepted Answer

Statement 1:  Both  p  &  q  are either positive or negative. if  p=2  &  q=1 , then we have  p>q  &  \frac{p}{q}>1 , but if  p=-2  &  q=-1 , then  \frac{p}{q}>1  but  p<q . Hence  Insufficient

Statement 2:   \frac{p-q}{q}-\frac{p-q}{p}>0 =>\frac{(p-q)^2}{pq}>0

Now  (p-q)^2>0 , hence  pq>0 . This implies both  p  &  q  are either positive or negative. Same as Statement 1.  Insufficient

Combining 1 & 2:  We know either  p  &  q  are positive or negative but we cannot determine the value of  p  &  q . Hence  Insufficient

Option  E

rohan2345 · Answer

Easy E.

Plug in the numbers -3 and -2 for both the statements. Both statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Bunuel · Answer

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     Theory   
 Inequalities Made Easy! 
 Inequalities: Tips and hints 
 Arithmetic with Inequalities 
 Wavy Line Method Application - Complex Algebraic Inequalities 
 Solving Quadratic Inequalities: Graphic Approach 
 Inequalities - Quadratic Inequalities 
 Graphic approach to problems with inequalities 
 Inequalities trick 
 INEQUATIONS(Inequalities) Part 1 
 INEQUATIONS(Inequalities) Part 2 
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 Inequality and absolute value questions from my collection 
 DS Questions 
 PS Questions

For more check  Ultimate GMAT Quantitative Megathread

gmatexam439 · Answer

Neither of the statements gives us any information about the sign of p and q. Both the statements are insufficient to answer.

Answer should be E

goaltop30mba · Answer

E is the answer

As per statement 1 : p>0 and q>0 or p<0 and q<0
Not sufficient

As per statement 2 : same as above

As per both the statements : same as above

Hence e is the answer

Posted from my mobile device

bumpbot · Answer

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Is p > q? (1) p/q > 1 (2) (p - q)/q > (p - q)/p

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