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V07-35

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Re: V07-35  [#permalink]

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New post 26 Nov 2016, 04:35
chismooo wrote:
I could not understand why C is wrong :( Could you explain?

I think A and C are so close, they both weaken the conclusion. A states another cause whereas C states a problem about the cause <>effect relation.
Both are the main right answer patterns for CR weaken questions.

I picked C. A states another reason but we do not know about the effects of reading book ( should we assume reading book is good for a quick sleep?)

However, in C, it is clearly mentioned that there is a reverse relation between cause and effect.


No, option C does not state a reverse cause and effect relation. It does not indicate that because of sleeplessness, people watch television at night. But your approach is correct - such reverse cause and effect relation is frequently used in GMAT strengthening / weakening questions. However this is not such a case - there would be clear implication of causation, not a correlation as stated in option C.
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New post 16 Dec 2016, 02:29
What confused me vis a vis response, is that you considered only Classical Music :: Peaceful Sleep, and ignored Late Night TV Watching :: Sleeplessness. Am i wrong in considering that as a part of the Conclusion ??
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New post 17 Dec 2016, 04:21
Omkar.kamat wrote:
What confused me vis a vis response, is that you considered only Classical Music :: Peaceful Sleep, and ignored Late Night TV Watching :: Sleeplessness. Am i wrong in considering that as a part of the Conclusion ??


Both are parts of the conclusion. However there is no option that weakens the second part (Late Night TV Watching :: Sleeplessness). Option A weakens the first part (Classical Music :: Peaceful Sleep).
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New post 07 Apr 2017, 12:47
Could someone explain why option D is wrong in this case?

We have to weaken the conclusion that listening to music contributes to restful sleep

Can it not be weakened by saying that mental engagement activity( reading/listening to music/watching tv) cannot contribute to a restful sleep?

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New post 29 Aug 2018, 18:58
answer C states, "Sleeplessness is more common among people who watch late-night television than among people who do not.... this stipulates a difference between those who watch TV and those who dont.

by contrast, answer A only states "People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime."

This indicates nothing about the other group of people (i.e. those that are not nighttime readers)... it could just as well be that TV watchers also read right before bedtime (after watching TV)... in which case this answer choice would be incorrect.

in addition, though the sleeplessness & TV watching are indeed a correlation, many times in the OG questions, this is as close as we get to a direct counter-causation answer choice for a weaken question.

if sleeplessness is more common in TV watchers than non TV watchers. than perhaps its the night-time TV, but it could also be the reverse-causation of nighttime TV watchers being predisposed to having trouble sleeping.

in the same fashion as this answer choice (C) could go both ways, so too could answer choice A... given that answer choice C directly excludes the second group (marking a clear "line in the sand" difference between both groups, a difference that could be the reason why TV watchers have trouble sleeping and other dont), while answer choice A does NOT exclude the possibility that TV watchers read just as much, answer choice C would be more correct in my opinion.

another non-GMAT like question that does more harm than good, in my opinion (because if we were to compile every GMAC-published question similar to this one, the evidence would overwhelmingly favor an answer like C being correct and A "close-but-incorrect")
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New post 12 Feb 2019, 08:57
hello, Option C explains a casual effect between watching TV and sleeplessness, this sentence means that people sleep better because they do not watch TV and music is not a contributing factor, this itself weakens the logic as it highlights the importance of listening classical music before bedtime and also does a comparison between listening on classical music and TV.
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New post 12 Feb 2019, 09:25
souvik101990 wrote:
An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to take sleeping pills at bedtime than a person who enjoys listening to classical music but does not watch television as a habit. Clearly, listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes to a more restful night’s sleep, whereas watching television before bedtime has the opposite effect. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the above argument?



Conclusion:
listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes to a more restful night’s sleep, whereas watching television before bedtime has the opposite effect.

Now i need to weaken it, now if i can find a reason which says that before sleeping they do something else, resulting in their peaceful sleep.

We should be good.

A. People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime.
First read, A is the best option, this is saying that they read book just before bedtime

B. Reading a book before bedtime contributes to restful sleep more than listening to music does.
I have boded the subtle difference both A and B

C. Sleeplessness is more common among people who watch late-night television than among people who do not.
This is not even addressing the main part of the conclusion.We have to talk about how they are able to sleep after listening to music

D. Engaging in a bedtime activity that is mentally stimulating often interferes with a person’s ability to fall asleep.
This is going opposite to the scope of the argument.

E. A silent environment is less conducive to restful sleep than an environment with calming ambient sounds.
This is like some additional information.
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New post 01 Sep 2019, 23:40
I think this is a poor-quality question and I don't agree with the explanation. we need to show that listening before bedtime might not cause sleep. We can do this by stating that even if they are listening the music, some other event causes sleep. But the mentioned answer is just comparing reading a book with music.
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New post 22 Sep 2019, 05:43
I think this is a high-quality question and I agree with explanation.
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New post 28 Nov 2019, 22:08
VeritasKarishma, (tagging you as you told in response to my PM)

I narrowed down two options and ultimately chosen wrong one (as usual), i.e. A and B. I chose B as an answer but it is wrong. There is slight variation between option A and B, A mentions about people who enjoys music and B does not mention about such people, rather gives general idea. Here, i fall for the trap. Can you please suggest how to avoid such mistakes?

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New post 28 Nov 2019, 23:03
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Raxit85 wrote:
VeritasKarishma, (tagging you as you told in response to my PM)

I narrowed down two options and ultimately chosen wrong one (as usual), i.e. A and B. I chose B as an answer but it is wrong. There is slight variation between option A and B, A mentions about people who enjoys music and B does not mention about such people, rather gives general idea. Here, i fall for the trap. Can you please suggest how to avoid such mistakes?

Regards,
Raxit.


Absolutely Raxit85! Tag me whenever you need help on any question.

TV viewers are more likely to take sleeping pills than classical music listeners.

Conclusion: Listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes to a more restful night’s sleep, whereas watching television before bedtime has the opposite effect

Based on the statistics, we are concluding that classical music leads to restful sleep while watching TV spoils sleep.
We need to weaken the conclusion.

A. People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime.

This tells us that classical music listeners have other good habits which could be the cause of better sleep. They read at bedtime and that could be why they have better sleep. Then our conclusion is not correct. Listening to classical music may not be what contributes to restful sleep. It could be the habit of reading at night.

B. Reading a book before bedtime contributes to restful sleep more than listening to music does.

This option, though it looks like (A), is very different from (A). We are not weakening that classical music leads to restful sleep. We are saying here that reading a book leads to even more restful sleep.
Forget option (A) for the time being. Read the argument again and then read option (B) directly. The argument is discussing "Tv watchers vs Music listeners". This option says that reading a book is even better than listening to music. That is irrelevant to our argument. It is talking about a third set of people - those who read. We are only comparing music listeners with TV watchers. The test setter has very smartly put this option right after option (A) to confuse the test taker.
Now, go back to option (A). Why is that not irrelevant? Because it says that music listeners read before sleeping. So it is still talking about the same group that concerns us - music listeners - and it gives another quality of theirs which actually could be the cause. That is why (A) is correct.

C. Sleeplessness is more common among people who watch late-night television than among people who do not.

We are not concerned about late night TV watchers. We don't know how many people out of our group of interest do that.

D. Engaging in a bedtime activity that is mentally stimulating often interferes with a person’s ability to fall asleep.

Not relevant. We have no idea which activity metal stimulates and which doesn't.

E. A silent environment is less conducive to restful sleep than an environment with calming ambient sounds.

Again, not relevant. What kind of environment is good for sleep, we don't care.

Answer (A)
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New post 29 Nov 2019, 01:47
VeritasKarishma

Thank you!!

Still one query in option A.

A. People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime.

This tells us that classical music listeners have other good habits which could be the cause of better sleep. They read at bedtime and that could be why they have better sleep. Then our conclusion is not correct. Listening to classical music may not be what contributes to restful sleep. It could be the habit of reading at night.

How can we justify the relationship between reading and restful sleep as it is not given nor it can be inferred in the passage although it's general truth for most people?

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New post 01 Dec 2019, 21:40
Raxit85 wrote:
VeritasKarishma

Thank you!!

Still one query in option A.

A. People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime.

This tells us that classical music listeners have other good habits which could be the cause of better sleep. They read at bedtime and that could be why they have better sleep. Then our conclusion is not correct. Listening to classical music may not be what contributes to restful sleep. It could be the habit of reading at night.

How can we justify the relationship between reading and restful sleep as it is not given nor it can be inferred in the passage although it's general truth for most people?

Regards,
Raxit.


No, we are not given that reading leads to better sleep. We don't need to establish it either. We just have to make ourselves doubt the conclusion. We don't have to establish that the conclusion is false and that there is another cause of good sleep. It is something like this:

All students of grade 7-A have scored very well. Ms. Danny is their class teacher. She must have taught them very well.

Now, what can make me doubt Ms. Danny's role? What if I were told, "All students of grade 7-A take extra classes with Ms. Veronica."
Will that make me doubt my conclusion? Yes. I will wonder - is Ms Danny a very good teacher or is it that Ms Veronica did a great job? It will make me think that my conclusion about Ms Danny may not be valid. That is all we need to do - weaken our conclusion, cast doubt on the conclusion.
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Re: V07-35   [#permalink] 01 Dec 2019, 21:40

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