It has often been
hypothesized that global oil consumption, which increases every year, will deplete the supply of oil, with catastrophic results for the global economy. However, these claims never stand up to scrutiny, as the volume of oil in reserves around the world
has remained constant. Which one of the following, if true, best resolves the apparent paradox?
(A) The actual annual consumption of oil is below that which many experts estimate.
As it can be seen from the stem, it has been HYPOTHESIZED, the actual consumption could be well below the rate mentioned by the experts, hence:
A) OIL Levels = OIL OUTPUT - OIL Consumption rate ('overestimated')
B) OIL Levels = OIL OUTPUT - REAL OIL Consumption rate ('Actual')
Caveat:
where {Overestimated rate > Actual rate}. Hence, balances the OIL Levels.(B) The cost of operating oil refineries has steadily decreased over time.
Cost is totally out of scope. As can be seen from the stats, A vs. D if the fight.(C) The consumption of oil has greatly increased in the past 50 years.
Consumption trend is actually deepening the paradox. higher the consumption will mean higher the depletion. But that doesn't solve the constant output.(D) It is the policy of all major oil producers to locate new reserves
at a rate consistent with that at which old reserves are depleted.
It might be a policy to find new Oil-wells at the same rate as consumption, but does not in anyway mention whether this increases or counter-balances the consumption rate.(E) The number of oil-producing countries has been steadily declining.
this again adds to the paradox, but doesn't really solve it.