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1 Insuff
2 Area of entire circle is pi*1^2= pi
Now if the ares of entire circle is pi, the area of triangle in all cases considered will be less than the area of circle (= pi)
So, the area of traingle must be less than Pi
Sufficient.
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1. Neither radius nor any side measure is given in the question. Hence angle alone is not sufficient

2. If the area of the entire circle= pi. 1^2 = pi. Therefore area of the triangle will be less than pi for sure . Hence B is sufficient

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1. Neither radius nor any side measure is given in the question. Hence angle alone is not sufficient

2. If the area of the entire circle= pi. 1^2 = pi. Therefore area of the triangle will be less than pi for sure . Hence B is sufficient

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oooh Thanks... that makes more sense... i dunno what i was doing
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Bunuel


Is the area of the triangle drawn in the circle (with center A) greater than \(\pi\) ?

(1) x = 36 degrees
(2) The radius of the circle is 1.
\({S_\Delta }\,\,\mathop > \limits^? \,\,\pi\)

(1) In the figure on the left presented below, all circles have center A and "same angle x" (shown in purple).



Please note that choosing convenient radii, we can create "circular sectors" with areas that are arbitrarily small, and arbitrarily large.
Consequence: the corresponding triangles (inside these circular sectors) can have areas that are also arbitrarily small, and arbitrarily large.

This is what we call a "GEOMETRIC BIFURCATION". This argument PROVES mathematically that (1) is insufficient!

(2) For any value of x (*) we have:

\(\left\{ \matrix{\\
\Delta \subset {\rm{circle}} \hfill \cr \\
\Delta \ne {\rm{circle}} \hfill \cr} \right.\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\, \Rightarrow \,\,\,\,\,\,{S_\Delta } < {S_{{\rm{circle}}}} = \pi {\left( 1 \right)^2}\,\,\,\,\,\,\, \Rightarrow \,\,\,\,\left\langle {{\rm{NO}}} \right\rangle\)

(*) We may implicitly assume that x is positive and less than 180 degrees. (Think about that!)


The correct answer is (B), indeed.


This solution follows the notations and rationale taught in the GMATH method.

Regards,
Fabio.
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