This question got me but yes answer is E. Let me explain with few numbers
COuntry X: Breakfast, Lunch in canteen(sugar ratio mentioned as twice of Y), dinner
Country Y Breakfast, Lunch in canteen(sugar ratio with X mentioned), dinner
Asked who eats more sugar. That will not just depend on lunch but other meals as well. Could be possible 'Y's breakfast and dinner is10 times sugar content of Breakfast and dinner. Also almost lunch is had by everyone - but on avg how much is tendency to skip breakfast or lunch - with this background lets make a formula Sugar content = Sugar in Breakfast*avg probability to have Breakfast
+ Sugar in Lunch*avg probability to have Lunch + Sugar in Dinner*avg probability to have Dinner.
Now
(1) For the average high schooler in Country Y, the average amount of sugar across all the meals of the day is similar to that contained in the AHCL in Country X.
We know avg sugar across the meal for 1 day not the probability to have. X could eat more likely in 1 day and Y could eat less. Weighted avgs - its not about what sugar content is present but consumed which is why probability to eat is imp
No
(2) In Country X, the average high schooler has one fewer meal per day compared with Country Y.
Well this answer's the second part I addressed in statement 1. Reject alone
Now together - I have avg of day and avg of probability but is this correct. Lets check mathematically
Sugar content B=10, L =20, C=30 Avg = 20
Probability = .1, .7, .4 = Avg probability = .03
IS 20*.03 same as .1*10 + .7*20 + .4*30 ------------NOOOOO
And that's the trap.... Ans E