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Bunuel
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n = 1 should give 1 as the answer. Only option C does that. [Good for GMAT purposes].

Else, the form is n*n!,

Substitute n = n + 1 - 1,

=> [(n+1) - 1] * n!
=> (n+1)*n! - n!
=> (n+1)! - n!

Making a series out of it,
(2! - 1!) + (3! - 2!) + (4! - 3!) + ..... + [n! - (n-1)!] + [(n+1)! - n!]

=> We are left with -1! + (n+1)!, while all other terms cancel each other.

Therefore, the answer is C. (n+1)! - 1
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Bunuel
What is the value of \(1*1! + 2*2! + 3*3! + ... + n*n!\) ?

(A) n! +1
(B) (n + 1)!
(C) (n + 1)!-1
(D) (n + 1)!+1
(E) n! + 3
Best way is to consider the series for smaller no. n=1, 2 or 3.

Method 2:

1*1! + 2*2! + ---+n*n!
This can be arranged and written as
(2*1! - 1!) + (3*2!- 2!) + (4*3!- 3!) + --- +((n+1)*n!- n!)

2!- 1! + 3! - 2! +4! - 3! + ------+ (n+1)!- n!
We see that values are getting cancelled other than 1 and (n+1)!

Therefore, we get (n+1)!- 1


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