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Originally posted by Sajjad1994 on 01 Nov 2019, 03:28.
Last edited by BottomJee on 16 Nov 2023, 10:04, edited 2 times in total.
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Dropdown 1: 1982
Dropdown 2: 9
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The graph depicts the GDP in $ billions for 4 world regions for the years 1969-2011.
From each drop-down menu, select the option that creates the most accurate statement about GDP worldwide based on the information provided. A decline in GDP in all 4 world regions strongly suggests an overall world recession rather than a simple structural economic change in any one country.
1. The graph suggests that the world most likely experienced a worldwide recession around the year .
2. From the year when North America and Europe experienced the largest difference in GDP. it took years for the laggard among the two to catch up to the other one's level of GDP from that year.
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For Q1, in 2008, all 4 are showing great dip in GDP and in 1982 NA & Europe struggled with declined GDP. I think 2008 should be the answer. Why it is 1982! Please explain. We are talking about worldwide recession, not about largest recession in one.
For Q1, in 2008, all 4 are showing great dip in GDP and in 1982 NA & Europe struggled with declined GDP. I think 2008 should be the answer. Why it is 1982! Please explain. We are talking about worldwide recession, not about largest recession in one.
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If you take a closer look you will find that in 2008 there was no recession in Latin America and Soviet Union rather the situation was reversed in these two regions. While in 1982 all four region faced recession.
For Q1, in 2008, all 4 are showing great dip in GDP and in 1982 NA & Europe struggled with declined GDP. I think 2008 should be the answer. Why it is 1982! Please explain. We are talking about worldwide recession, not about largest recession in one.
If you take a closer look you will find that in 2008 there was no recession in Latin America and Soviet Union rather the situation was reversed in these two regions. While in 1982 all four region faced recession.
Show more
You see there is a deviation towards downward region and it is more in 2008 . It cant be 1982 . Also how is it 9 years for second one
As you can see people are not able to see the dip in 1982 well enough, so 2008 seemed to be a much intuitive option. I hope GMAT provides us clearer pictures.
Also, can you help us explain the part 2 of the question?
Agreed, the question has wrong OAs. The first question should have answer 2008, when the dip is much more prominent than 1982. The second question is confusing, as you have two wavy that has two periods where the gap is maximum, while another two periods where the gap is minimum.
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block above for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.