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Bunuel
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Hi Quantumlinear,

How can you write (2^20) + 2 + (Q-1)2 = (2^30) - 2 when calculating the number of even numbers between (2^20)+2 and (2^30)-2.?
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Hello Sarugiri,

That comes from the formula of AP (Arithmetic Progression).

In an arithmetic progression, the difference between 2 consecutive terms remains constant.

Let the first term be A and the common difference be D
Then
First term = A
Second Term = A+D = A+(2-1)D
Third Term = (A+D)+D=A+2D = A+(3-1)D
...
Nth term = A + (N-1)D = first term + (N-1)*D

Here the nth term is 2^20-2 and first term is 2^20+2 and the common difference is 2.

So we can write 2^20-2=2^20+2 + (N-1)*2

Hope that answers your question
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Why subtract by 1 below? Shouldn't we add by 1 to get an inclusive set? The answer is the same either way, but I want to make sure I address a conceptual gap if I have one.

Thanks,
Alec

chetan2u
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Q represents the number of even integers, x, such that 2^20<x<2^30 then which of the following must be true?

i. Q is even.

II. Q is divisible by 31

III. Q is divisible by 32

A) I only

B) II only

C) I and II only

D) I, II and III

E) None of the above

Number of even integers = \(\frac{2^{30}-2^{20}}{2}-1=\frac{2^{20}(2^{10}-1)}{2}-1=2^{19}(2^{10}-1)-1=2^{19}(2^5-1)(2^5+1)-1=2^{19}*31*33-1\)

Now 2^19*31*33 is multiple of 2 and 31, so when we subtract 1 from it, the result will be odd number and also not divisible by 31..

Thus, none of the options are true...

E
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