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Although a surge in retail sales have raised hopes that there is a rec

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Although a surge in retail sales have raised hopes that there is a rec  [#permalink]

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New post Updated on: 13 Dec 2018, 04:54
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A
B
C
D
E

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Although a surge in retail sales have raised hopes that there is a recovery finally under way, many economists say that without a large amount of spending the recovery might not last.


(A) have raised hopes that there is a recovery finally

(B) raised hopes for there being a recovery finally

(C) had raised hopes for a recovery finally being

(D) has raised hopes that a recovery is finally

(E) raised hopes for a recovery finally


The Official Guide for GMAT Review, 11th Edition, 2005

Practice Question
Question No.: SC 1
Page: 638

My question is related to MEANING only. I eliminated B & E as these options use "raised" and as per meaning PRESENT PERFECT should be used as hopes were raised in past and economists are talking about present

Originally posted by vikram4689 on 19 Jan 2012, 23:42.
Last edited by Bunuel on 13 Dec 2018, 04:54, edited 4 times in total.
Renamed the topic and edited the question.
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New post 20 Jan 2012, 12:55
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Hi, there. I'm happy to help with this. :)

I am a little perplexed your statement: "My question is related to MEANING only." You started what I would call an excellent analysis --I'll just continue that, hoping that this answers your question.

You are correct: the economists concern about the recovery not lasting is in the PRESENT, which means the surge in sales must be PRESENT PERFECT. Absolute true.

When look at the pattern of verb tenses in the answer choices, we see:
(A) present perfect
(B) past
(C) past perfect
(D) present perfect
(E) past

You mentioned that you eliminated (B) & (E) on the basis of verb tense --- very good --- I would add that we can also eliminate (C) on this basis.

That leaves (A) vs. (D)
(A) have raised hopes that there is a recovery finally
(D) has raised hopes that a recovery is finally

The principal difference between (A) and (D) is not verb tense but "verb number", i.e., singular or plural. We need to look at the subject:

"Although a surge in retail sales have raised hopes that there is a recovery finally under way

Notice that "in retails sales" is a prepositional phrase, so the only noun that can serve as the subject is "surge" ----> singular. This requires a singular verb:
(A) a surge . . . have raised :(
(D) a surge . . . has raised :)

Choice D has the right tense and the right number, so it's the correct choice.

Does this make sense? Did I answer your question? Please let me know if you have any further questions about what I've said here.

Mike :)
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New post 24 Jul 2013, 23:04
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lalalulala wrote:
I am confused that why the OG said there is ...finally underway is awkward and wordy. what does it mean?


Hi lalalulala.

First of all, welcome to Gmatclub :)

IMO, there are two problem with the clause: "there is a recovery finally underway"

(1) "finally underway" is adjective ==> modifies "a recovery" ==> we hardly put an adjective after noun in the "there is/are.." clause.
For example:
There is a red apple ==> Correct
There is an apple red ==> Wrong.

(2) Hopes that there is a recovery ..... ==> wrong meaning.
You say "there is X" ==> you mean X is "real". For example: There is an apple on the table. (You physically see the apple on the table)
This question, however, does not mention a recovery is ACTUALLY underway. The sentence just says "hope". You can't say "there is a recovery"
The correct syntax is: hopes that X in underway.

Hope it helps.
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Re: Although a surge in retail sales have raised hopes that there is a rec  [#permalink]

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New post 01 Oct 2012, 21:08
Could somebody explain me why E is wrong?
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New post 02 Oct 2012, 10:05
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sachindia wrote:
Could somebody explain me why E is wrong?


Although a surge in retail sales have raised hopes that there is a recovery finally under way, many economists say that without a large amount of spending the recovery might not last.
(A) have raised hopes that there is a recovery finally
(B) raised hopes for there being a recovery finally
(C) had raised hopes for a recovery finally being
(D) has raised hopes that a recovery is finally
(E) raised hopes for a recovery finally


Dear sachindia,

One way to say it is --- in the business world, and on the GMAT, decisive action is a good thing. Verbs are inherently the "action words" of any sentence. If you have a choice of describing an action with a verb vs. without a verb, 99 times out of 100 it will be wrong on the GMAT to describe an action without a verb. Consider (E) --- what are we hoping? "for a recovery finally under way." That's essentially an action without any verb. Not ideal on the GMAT.

Furthermore, it's an awkward construction. As a general rule, the construction the GMAT most likes with the word "hope" are
1) so-and-so hopes to do X (hope + infinitive)
2) so-and-so hopes that A does Y (hope plus substantive clause beginning with "that")
The GMAT frowns on
3) hope + participle
4) hope + (action with no verb at all)

The OA, (D), is of the form (hope + "that"-clause), a correct form, whereas (E) is of the form (verb + no-verb phrase), which is incorrect.

Does all this make sense?

Mike :-)
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Re: Although a surge in retail sales have raised hopes that there is a rec  [#permalink]

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New post 03 Oct 2012, 06:02
Thanks for the reply.
Are you saying that E is a awkward construction but is grammatically correct? :?:

but I always believed that a simple past is always preferred on the GMAT. :roll:

It is so difficult to remember rules for different words, eg for hope in this case. :shock:

could you please generalize the solution.
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New post 03 Oct 2012, 10:57
sachindia wrote:
Thanks for the reply.
Are you saying that E is a awkward construction but is grammatically correct? :?:

but I always believed that a simple past is always preferred on the GMAT. :roll:

It is so difficult to remember rules for different words, eg for hope in this case. :shock:

could you please generalize the solution.


1) Answer choice (E) is definitely awkward. Whether it is grammatically correct is highly doubtful, but I suppose debatable. In general, something that is a correct answer on GMAT SC is nowhere close to debatable ----- it is grammatically correct beyond a shadow of a doubt.

2) The GMAT uses several tenses --- present perfect, past perfect, past progressing, etc. etc. You need to know them all. See:
http://magoosh.com/gmat/2012/gmat-verb- ... ct-tenses/
http://magoosh.com/gmat/2012/gmat-verbs ... ive-tense/

3) Yes, it is hard to remember the rules in the abstract, especially if English is not your first language. There is no substitute for reading. If you want to improve your general understanding of all the idiomatic rules, read high-level English every day. The NYT, the WSJ, the Economist magazine are all excellent choices --- and all of them contain info that will be highly relevant to you once you have your MBA!

4) Generalize? I have no idea what you mean. I did give you some general rules about verb and about use the word "hope." What further generalizations would you like to see? In many ways, there are no generalizations about the idioms: you just have to learn English idioms well. The MGMAT Volume 8 book on SC has a excellent chapter on Idioms. That would be a wonderful starting point.

Does all this make sense?

Mike :-)
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New post 24 Jul 2013, 19:33
I am confused that why the OG said there is ...finally underway is awkward and wordy. what does it mean?
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New post 24 Aug 2013, 20:08
I have a question:in the sentence" The widely accepted big bang theory holds that the universe began in an explosive instant ten to twenty billion years ago and has been expanding ever since." Why the "has been expanding ever since" cannot be replaced by "as expanded" ?Are there any differences between those two phrases?
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New post 25 Aug 2013, 11:52
yhggg wrote:
I have a question:in the sentence" The widely accepted big bang theory holds that the universe began in an explosive instant ten to twenty billion years ago and has been expanding ever since." Why the "has been expanding ever since" cannot be replaced by "as expanded" ?Are there any differences between those two phrases?

Dear yhggg,

Good question. I'm happy to respond. :-)

has expanded --- past perfect: process in the past, somehow not fully ended and therefore still either continuing or having implications in the present.

has been expanding ---- past perfect progressive --- this has all the implications of the past perfect, but it emphasizes the continuous ongoing activity.

See these links:
http://magoosh.com/gmat/2012/gmat-verb- ... ct-tenses/
http://magoosh.com/gmat/2012/gmat-verbs ... ive-tense/

It's not a huge difference between these, but since we want to emphasize that, yes, the expansion of the universe has been in action continuously, without cease, since the Big Bang, then the past perfect progressive is slightly preferable.

Does this make sense?
Mike :-)
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New post Updated on: 08 Sep 2013, 20:13
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Hi, I have doubt in following question:

Although a surge in retail sales have raised hopes that there is a recovery finally under way, many economists say that without a large amount of spending the recovery might not last.
(A) have raised hopes that there is a recovery finally
(B) raised hopes for there being a recovery finally
(C) had raised hopes for a recovery finally being
(D) has raised hopes that a recovery is finally
(E) raised hopes for a recovery finally

Step 1: Meaning- It shows contrast that Surge in retail sales has raised hopes for final recovery but many economists say that it may not last withought spending a large amount.

Step 2:
C1: Although a surge in retail sales have raised hopes - Present Perfect Tense
C2: that there is a recovery finally under way- Simple Present Tense
C3: many economists say - Simple Present tense
C4: that without a large amount of spending the recovery might not last.- don't know Tense

Step 3: POE
C1: Subject is Singular, so A should be eliminated.
Time frame is not given, so past tense will not be used. so B and E should be eliminated.
Past Perfect Tense is also wrong, as only one sentence is used. so C should be eliminated.
In D: C1 and C2: satisfy the Subject Verb pair.

My doubt is: What is the difference between May and Might? Is Might a past tense of May? Can we use may instead of might in above sentence?

Thanks,
Mugdha.

Originally posted by PiyuMu on 05 Sep 2013, 16:12.
Last edited by Narenn on 08 Sep 2013, 20:13, edited 2 times in total.
Topic Merged in similar topic :- 1) Please post the topic in relevant forum i.e. SC question should be posted in SC Forum and not in General Verbal Forum. 2) Search the forum once before posting a new question. Help us fight with Spam
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New post 06 Sep 2013, 06:33
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Hi Mugdha,

Thanks for posting your questions here. :)

I must begin by saying that you have done a very great job in analyzing this problem. Keep up the good analysis. It not helps you understand the concepts well but also helps the community at large.

Now coming to your question, the difference between "may" and "might" is really very subtly. Both the words present possibility. Almost in all cases, they are used interchangeably. However, according to some grammarians, the difference between the two is that "may" is used for actions that are more likely to happen, and "might" for actions that are less likely to happen. For example:

I might cook tonight.
I may have pizza for dinner.

Out of these two events, the latter is more likely to happen than the former. Now, the question is does GMAT test us on the use of "may" and "might"? I would like to believe that it does not.

Hope this helps. :-)
Thanks.
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New post 31 Mar 2014, 22:17
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(E). is most popular asked choice that why it is wrong.

If you read MGMAT SC guide , you will come to know a rule

Drive VAN

Verb>Adjective (Adverb) > Noun

Specific Rule: Prefer THAT clause having verb over prepositional phrase.

This is what is implied by (E)
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New post 31 May 2014, 23:26
Although a surge in retail sales have raised hopes that there is a recovery finally under way, many economists say that without a large amount of spending the recovery might not last.
(A) have raised hopes that there is a recovery finally
(B) raised hopes for there being a recovery finally
(C) had raised hopes for a recovery finally being
(D) has raised hopes that a recovery is finally
(E) raised hopes for a recovery finally

POE(Process of Elimination)

1.Subject is surge,which is singular and so need a singular verb.
option A is out for this reason.
2.in option B : for....being is awkward construction...and by the way "being" signal red flag in GMAT so this option is also out.
3. option C is using past perfect....past perfect should be used to demonstrate some complex event order in the past...in which past to past event is expressed in past perfect and later event is expressed in past tense.here we are talking about present tense.also being signals awkward construction here.so for these reasons option C is out.

4. For a recovery finally is awkward and to the extent that it can be seen as grammatical does not make sense.so option E is out.

5. so we left with option D as a correct choice.
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New post 05 Sep 2014, 12:51
I was going to choose D at first.

Then, I looked at E and saw "hopes for" - I didnt see the "hopes" usage before, but just thought "hopes for" could be idiomatically correct then, "hopes that".

Later saw in GMAT forums that "hopes for" is indeed a correct usage. Does anyone know the various usages of hopes accepted in the GMAT.

What is the reason for eliminating "E" -
1. Is it because the original sentence has "Present tense" for the underlined portion, which indicates that a "Present tense" is preferred in the correct answer choice, so that it doesnt change the meaning of the original sentence. But the sentence should make sense (when we retain that tense).

Reason that "E" could exists -
A surge could have happened in the past (but recently) and it raised the hopes in the past (when surge started)as well. And economist could have given a statement - say today (since its present tense).
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New post 05 Sep 2014, 13:22
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sa2222 wrote:
Does anyone know the various usages of hopes accepted in the GMAT.

Dear sa2222,

For starters, see these GMAT idiom flashcards:
https://gmat.magoosh.com/flashcards/idioms

Also, see this blog:
http://magoosh.com/gmat/2013/gmat-idiom ... -and-fear/

Let me know if you have any further questions.
Mike :-)
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Re: Although a surge in retail sales have raised hopes that there is a rec  [#permalink]

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New post 05 Sep 2014, 19:15
mikemcgarry wrote:
sa2222 wrote:
Does anyone know the various usages of hopes accepted in the GMAT.

Dear sa2222,

For starters, see these GMAT idiom flashcards:
https://gmat.magoosh.com/flashcards/idioms

Also, see this blog:
http://magoosh.com/gmat/2013/gmat-idiom ... -and-fear/

Let me know if you have any further questions.
Mike :-)


Hello Mike,

Thanks for your reply. I know you have explained this question on this post. But, I just want to ask you about something general. If you see Mugdha's explanation above and even in general for GMAT SC questions - If we see the underlined portion "with a particular tense - e.g. Present tense", then should we keep the same tense? if the sentence is making sense. And, even though if a different choice looks correct, like "E" in this case, don't change tense if not needed.
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New post 06 Sep 2014, 13:32
sa2222 wrote:
Hello Mike,

Thanks for your reply. I know you have explained this question on this post. But, I just want to ask you about something general. If you see Mugdha's explanation above and even in general for GMAT SC questions - If we see the underlined portion "with a particular tense - e.g. Present tense", then should we keep the same tense? if the sentence is making sense. And, even though if a different choice looks correct, like "E" in this case, don't change tense if not needed.

Dear sa2222,
I'm happy to respond. :-)

Here's the thing: grammar is not mathematics. You are looking for clear unambiguous rules, and these don't exist.

Suppose a GMAT SC, in the underlined sections, has a verb tense that seems to make sense. Should it remain unchanged? Maybe. Sometimes, it's possible to say something in two different correct ways, involving two different verb tenses, and if something other grammatical feature is wrong in the underlined part, that could result in a right answer in a different tense. Also, what seems to make sense gets very tricky with indirect speech. The rules of indirect speech are subtle and not always intuitive. See:
http://magoosh.com/gmat/2013/sequence-o ... orrection/

There is no black & white rule here. There is absolutely no way to get to GMAT SC mastery through some "complete list" of grammar rules. If you are trying to get to mastery simply by learning all the rules, know that this project is doomed to failure. To get to the level of mastery, you need to read. You need to read every day, for an hour a day --- that's over and above time spent on other GMAT studying. Through reading, you will develop a deeper sense for the language, an "ear" for grammar. You cannot get there by learning any list of rules.

Does all this make sense?

Mike :-)
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Re: Although a surge in retail sales have raised hopes that there is a rec  [#permalink]

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New post 16 Feb 2015, 11:34
why is C incorrect? i thought had is used when another action occurs after the had.

surge in retail sales HAD raised hopes, and then economist think it might not last.
the surge occurred and then the economist thoughts proceeded. can someone please explain why this is incorrect
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New post 17 Feb 2015, 11:32
btan219 wrote:
why is C incorrect? i thought had is used when another action occurs after the had.

surge in retail sales HAD raised hopes, and then economist think it might not last.
the surge occurred and then the economist thoughts proceeded. can someone please explain why this is incorrect

Dear btan219,

I'm happy to respond. :-)

Here's the question again:
Although a surge in retail sales have raised hopes that there is a recovery finally under way, many economists say that without a large amount of spending the recovery might not last.
(A) have raised hopes that there is a recovery finally
(B) raised hopes for there being a recovery finally
(C) had raised hopes for a recovery finally being
(D) has raised hopes that a recovery is finally
(E) raised hopes for a recovery finally


First of all, use of "had" is a tense known as the past perfect. For more on the past perfect, see this blog:
https://magoosh.com/gmat/2012/gmat-verb ... ct-tenses/
The past perfect is used to show that one action occurred before another PAST event.
If event #1 is in the PAST, and event #2 happened before it, then we would use the past tense for #1 and the past perfect for #2
When I moved to California, I had already completed my master's degree.
If event #1 is in the PRESENT, and event #2 happened before it, then we do NOT need the past perfect. We would use the present tense for #1, and one option for #2 would be the simple past tense.
I am having a big lunch now because I didn't eat breakfast.

Notice that, in this sentence, the "later" event is in the present: " . . . many economists say . . ." That's a present tense verb, a present tense action. It is 100% wrong to use the past perfect for something preceding a present action. That's one reason (C) is wrong. We could use the simple past for the previous action, but the OA here makes an interesting choice --- the present perfect. I write about this curious verb tense in that same blog on the perfect tense. The present perfect indicates either an action that started in the past and still continues, or an action that was done in the past but is somehow still present (through its influence, effects, consequences, etc.) Here, the "surge in retail sales" began in the past, and may still be continuing. Even if it is not still happening, the hopes it raised are still raised, and economists are responding to these raised hopes. This is why use the present perfect is excellent in this sentence.

Choice (C) has some other problems. Compare (C) to the OA, (D):
(C) had raised hopes for a recovery finally being under way . . .
(D) has raised hopes that a recovery is finally under way . . .
Choice (C) is indirect and awkward. It lacks power because it is weak and floppy. By contrast, (D) is direct, clear, and powerful. It's a different in the feel of the sentence. In terms of what we might be willing to believe or accept, (D) is a winner, and (C) is a loser.

As a general pattern, "for" + [noun] + "being" is a relatively indirect and weak way to phrase something. There's almost always a stronger and clearer way to say the same thing.

Does all this make sense?
Mike :-)
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