tarunrathi999
Hi tarunrathi999,
While the answers to this question appear 'close together', they're really not (relative to what the question is asking) - meaning that you can solve this problem without actually doing much math.
IF we had an equal number of both types of shares (meaning for every 1 share at $45.75, we'd have 1 share at $46.25), then the average price per share would be $46 exactly. You don't actually have to perform a big calculation to prove that either. Since the first share is 25 cents LESS than $46 and the second share is 25 cents MORE than $46, those differences 'cancel out', leaving us with an average of $46.
The prompt tells us that there are MORE of the $46.25 shares, so the average is clearly going to be greater than $46. That narrows the options down to Answers D and E. However, there are only 20 of the first shares and 30 of the second shares, and Answer E is SO CLOSE to $46.25, that there's no way for that to be the average. There would need to be far more of the second type of shares (proportionately speaking) to drive the average up to $46.20. Since that's not the case, the answer MUST be Answer D.
GMAT assassins aren't born, they're made,
Rich
Contact Rich at:
Rich.C@empowergmat.comwww.empowergmat.com