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Before 1988, insurance companies in California were free to charge wha

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Re: Before 1988, insurance companies in California were free to charge wha [#permalink]

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New post 30 Apr 2018, 22:53
When we're looking at meaning, it doesn't generally work to say that a given phrase is always confusing or ambiguous. What matters is how clear it is in the given context. In the context of this sentence, the phrase "with no approval needed" does not make the meaning as clear as A. It doesn't help that we have additional imprecise language--"the raising of rates"--which obscures who is raising rates. Even if it's still clear to us who is raising rates without the need for approval, why express the thought in this imprecise way?
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Re: Before 1988, insurance companies in California were free to charge wha [#permalink]

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New post 01 May 2018, 00:07
DmitryFarber wrote:
When we're looking at meaning, it doesn't generally work to say that a given phrase is always confusing or ambiguous. What matters is how clear it is in the given context. In the context of this sentence, the phrase "with no approval needed" does not make the meaning as clear as A. It doesn't help that we have additional imprecise language--"the raising of rates"--which obscures who is raising rates. Even if it's still clear to us who is raising rates without the need for approval, why express the thought in this imprecise way?



DmitryFarber,

Thanks for your reply.

What I understand from your post is that the phrase with no approval needed is not wrong in general . However, in this particular answer choice it is not the most preferable option because -
here we have two noun contenders , which can act as subject of the phrase with no approval needed -

1 - insurance companies do not need approval
OR
2 - market does not need approval

However, if there was just one noun as a possible contender for the subject of the phrase, would the choice still be ambiguous (ignoring the other errors you pointed out in the answer choice)?
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Re: Before 1988, insurance companies in California were free to charge wha [#permalink]

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New post 08 Jun 2018, 09:05
I am confused here. Does with not modify preceding clause? How is with used after comma?

egmat wrote:
gmatacer40 wrote:
Why option E is wrong?



Hello gmatacer40,

I will be glad to help you with this one. :-)

Choice A explicitly says that insurance companies in California did not need any approval from regulators.

But Choice E just says with no approval needed. It does not specify who did not need approval, an information explicitly mentioned in the original sentence. Hence, Choice E leads to a distortion in meaning and stands incorrect.

It's always easier to approach the sentence from meaning standpoint rather than learn a whole lot of grammar rules that you may or may not remember at the time when you may need to use them. :-)


Hope this helps. :-)
Thanks.
Shraddha

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Re: Before 1988, insurance companies in California were free to charge wha [#permalink]

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New post 10 Jun 2018, 03:33
GMATNinja egmat VeritasPrepKarishma generis

I could not understand how coma + verb-ing ie needing modifies the noun - insurance companies - by giving more info about HOW / cause-effect relationship?

In (B) why could not IT act as a placeholder pronoun ? This option is also totally bad since we need FROM , not BY regulators . Am I correct?
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Re: Before 1988, insurance companies in California were free to charge wha   [#permalink] 10 Jun 2018, 03:33

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