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By showing that South Africa does not have a free market and is in fac
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02 Dec 2007, 08:41
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C
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(N/A)
Question Stats:
36% (00:59) correct 64% (01:01) wrong based on 471 sessions
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By showing that South Africa does not have a free market and is in fact a kind of collectivist welfare state for Whites only, Sowell argues that American conservatives have no valid ideological grounds to be in sympathy with the Pretoria regime.
Though these are not specifically stated as idioms at these sources, but the sources are gullible.
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Re: By showing that South Africa does not have a free market and is in fac
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02 Aug 2009, 08:20
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B uses the correct idiom to sympathize with
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04 Aug 2010, 23:44
C is the correct answer.
"Grounds to" is not a correct idiom, so we can eliminate A and B. "Grounds for" is idiomatically correct. Although "grounds that" can be correct, when it's negated ("no grounds"), the correct idiom is "no grounds for." So C is the correct answer choice.
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Re: By showing that South Africa does not have a free market and is in fac
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04 Aug 2010, 23:45
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C is the correct answer.
"Grounds to" is not a correct idiom, so we can eliminate A and B. "Grounds for" is idiomatically correct. Although "grounds that" can be correct, when it's negated ("no grounds"), the correct idiom is "no grounds for." So C is the correct answer choice.
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Re: South Africa does not have a free market
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10 Jul 2012, 02:24
Tense and framework of the question shows that the Conservatives are still doing the action of sympathizing with Whites. The right tense should be in continuous form, i.e. verb-ing.
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11 Jul 2012, 11:47
OldFritz wrote:
Tense and framework of the question shows that the Conservatives are still doing the action of sympathizing with Whites. The right tense should be in continuous form, i.e. verb-ing.
C is the right answer.
Cheers, Der alte Fritz.
Hi OldFritz: Y ou are absolutely correct in saying that this sentence talks about all the present events and that are correctly written in simple present tense verbs – “does not have”, “is”, “argues” and “have”. “Sympathizing” is not a verb. To be a verb, “sympathizing” must be preceded by “is/am/are/was/were” etc. “Sympathizing” in the correct answer choice is a gerund, a noun. It denotes an action but acts as a noun.
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13 Nov 2015, 06:46
Use the VAN and you will find the verb symphathize is better than the gerund sympathizing _ B is to be preferred
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Re: By showing that South Africa does not have a free market and is in fac
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11 Jul 2016, 23:00
The reason "for" is correct rather than "to" is that "for" is used when we have to show "what for" aspect whereas "to" is used to show reasoning i.e. "why" aspect
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06 Nov 2019, 01:17
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36% (00:59) correct 
