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09 Feb 2017, 19:35
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D
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Difficulty:
35%
(medium)
Question Stats:
56% (00:52) correct
44%
(01:03)
wrong
based on 72
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If x and y are integers from 31 to 35, both inclusive. Is x>y?
(1) x is a prime number.
(2) sum of digits of y is 8.
Self made
(1) x is a prime number.
(2) sum of digits of y is 8.
Self made
Updated on: 09 Feb 2017, 23:47
Originally posted by quantumliner on 09 Feb 2017, 19:44.
Last edited by quantumliner on 09 Feb 2017, 23:47, edited 1 time in total.
Last edited by quantumliner on 09 Feb 2017, 23:47, edited 1 time in total.
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1) x is a prime number.
X can only take the value of 31. Now Y can be either 31 or 32, 33, 34 , 35. Now since whatever be the value of Y, value of X will always be less than or equal to that of Y. Hence Statement 1 is sufficient.
2) sum of digits of y is 8.
Y can only take the value of 35. Now X can either be 35 or less than 35. But X cannot be more than 35.
Hence the answer to x>y is No. Statement 2 is sufficient.
Answer is D
X can only take the value of 31. Now Y can be either 31 or 32, 33, 34 , 35. Now since whatever be the value of Y, value of X will always be less than or equal to that of Y. Hence Statement 1 is sufficient.
2) sum of digits of y is 8.
Y can only take the value of 35. Now X can either be 35 or less than 35. But X cannot be more than 35.
Hence the answer to x>y is No. Statement 2 is sufficient.
Answer is D
09 Feb 2017, 20:00
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quantumliner
What if X=Y then as per option B x<=y which is same as option A. Both statement is sufficient to answer whether x>y or not.
So ans is D.
Please correct me if I am wrong.
Sent from my iPad using GMAT Club Forum mobile app
