Doctors in Britain have
long suspected that patients who wear tinted eyeglasses are abnormally prone to depression and hypochondria.
Psychological tests given there to hospital patients admitted for physical complaints like heart pain and digestive distress
confirmed such a relationship.
Perhaps people whose relationship to the world is psychologically painful
choose such glasses to reduce visual stimulation, which is perceived as irritating. At any rate,
it can be concluded that when such glasses are worn, it is because the wearer has a tendency to be depressed or hypochondriacal.The argument assumes which one of the following?
(A) Depression is not caused in
some cases by an organic condition of the body.
(B) Wearers do not think of the tinted glasses as a
means of distancing themselves from other people.
(C) Depression can have many causes, including actual conditions about which
it is reasonable for anyone to be depressed.
(D) For hypochondriacs wearing tinted glasses, the glasses serve as a
visual signal to others that the wearer’s health is delicate.(E) The tinting does not dim light to the eye enough to depress the wearer’s mood substantially.
Clearly the last sentence is conclusion. Key words are highlighted and specific impact(possible) words are underlined.
It has to be understood that a relationship is suggested in the passage. Is it correct or not, we don't know but most importantly have to figure out why such a relationship is suggested.
I was between D and E and chose D.
What I forgot is that D is some sort of a inference just like B.The core of the argument is how depression/hypochondria is related to wearing tinted glasses. Are those people by themselves like that - depressive and hypochondriacal? OR Is it that wearing tinted glasses causes them to be so?
This is what E clears the air about.