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705-805 Level|   Weaken|         
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During the 1980s the homicide rate in Britain rose by 50 percent. The weapon used usually was a knife. Potentially lethal knives are sold openly and legally in many shops. Most homicide deaths occur as a result of unpremeditated assaults within the family. Even if these are increasing, they would probably not result in deaths if it were not for the prevalence of such knives. Thus the blame lies with the permissiveness of the government that allows such lethal weapons to be sold.

Which one of the following is the strongest criticism of the argument above?

Weaken question

Pre-thinking

The government thinks that if these knifes were not sold, there would not be an increase in the homicide rate.... So are these knifes brand new? Were they sold before? If they were sold before why didn't the homicide rate grow before?
An Assumption made by the argument is that such knifes were not sold before the 1980s

POE


(A) There are other means besides knives, such as guns or poison, that can be used to accomplish homicide by a person who intends to cause the death of another.
irrelevant

(B) It is impossible to know how many unpremeditated assaults occur within the family, since many are not reported to the authorities.
irrelevant

(C) Knives are used in other homicides besides those that result from unpremeditated assaults within the family.
irrelevant

(D) The argument assumes without justification that the knives used to commit homicide are generally purchased as part of a deliberate plan to commit murder or to inflict grievous harm on a family member.
The author does not assume this statement as she clearly states that such homicides are unpremeditated

(E) If the potentially lethal knives referred to are ordinary household knives, such knives were common before the rise in the homicide rate; but if they are weaponry, such knives are not generally available in households.
In line with pre-thinking.
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During the 1980s the homicide rate in Britain rose by 50 percent. The weapon used usually was a knife. Potentially lethal knives are sold openly and legally in many shops. Most homicide deaths occur as a result of unpremeditated assaults within the family. Even if these are increasing, they would probably not result in deaths if it were not for the prevalence of such knives. Thus the blame lies with the permissiveness of the government that allows such lethal weapons to be sold.

Which one of the following is the strongest criticism of the argument above?

(A) There are other means besides knives, such as guns or poison, that can be used to accomplish homicide by a person who intends to cause the death of another. - WRONG. Strengthens rather.

(B) It is impossible to know how many unpremeditated assaults occur within the family, since many are not reported to the authorities. - WRONG. Knowing how many does not impact the conclusion.

(C) Knives are used in other homicides besides those that result from unpremeditated assaults within the family. - WRONG. Differentiated homicides is not in our scope.

(D) The argument assumes without justification that the knives used to commit homicide are generally purchased as part of a deliberate plan to commit murder or to inflict grievous harm on a family member. - WRONG. Intentions are not discussed neither even slightly suggested.

(E) If the potentially lethal knives referred to are ordinary household knives, such knives were common before the rise in the homicide rate; but if they are weaponry, such knives are not generally available in households. - CORRECT. Those knives are already available at homes so those selling now are not used. Reasoning is hampered that blaming govt might not be that good a conclusion.

Answer E.
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for (E), why are you assuming that the ordinary household knives could not have caused the homicide just because these were available before the homicide

it could be that though they were available, the circumstances that led to the homicide wasn't. And therefore due to changing circumstances, people got more inclined for these homicides and the weapon used was ordinary household knives, just because they were easily available

can someone please help?

MartyMurray
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this question is most easily answered through process of elimination. (A)-(D) can be eliminated for logical reasons.

Between the wording of your question and the wording of the argument and answer choice, I'm a bit confused. Thus, let me just point out a couple of things that I think are relevant and you can tell me if I've answered your question, ok? :)

First of all, what you have listed as "C:" below is not quite right. It's not that rates of homicide are increasing, it's that rates of "unpremeditated assaults" are increasing. So an analysis of the argument looks more like this:

P: In the 80s, homicide rate rose 50%
P: Weapon usually a knife
P: Potentially lethal knives sold all around
P: Most homicides due to unpremeditated assaults within family
P: Even if such assaults increasing, probly no death if potentially lethal knives weren't around

C: Govt's fault for permitting potentially lethal knives to be sold

This is a complicated, and bad argument. The "even if... probably" statement is confusing, etc. The first four answer choices attempt to use smoke and mirrors to get you tangled up in the logic of all the premises.

(E) cuts right to the chase -- dealing directly with the rise of homicides in the 80s, and the family nature of the problem. If "potentially lethal knives" are household knives, these have always been available, so the rise in the 80s, therefore, can't be explained by this. If "potentially lethal knives" are actual weapons, these aren't in households!

This seriously weakens the central argument.
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RiyaJ0032
for (E), why are you assuming that the ordinary household knives could not have caused the homicide just because these were available before the homicide

it could be that though they were available, the circumstances that led to the homicide wasn't. And therefore due to changing circumstances, people got more inclined for these homicides and the weapon used was ordinary household knives, just because they were easily available

can someone please help?
Here's the conclusion of the argument:

Thus the blame lies with the permissiveness of the government that allows such lethal weapons to be sold.

We see that the conclusion is about "the blame." So, we have to identify what the blame is for.

We see that the author is saying that the permissiveness of the government is to blame for the fact that "the homicide rate in Britain rose."

Now, here's (E):

(E) If the potentially lethal knives referred to are ordinary household knives, such knives were common before the rise in the homicide rate; but if they are weaponry, such knives are not generally available in households.

We see that (E) is pointing out that knives were either already available before the rise in the homicide rate or are still not available, depending on what type of knives are considered.

So, the point of (E) is that the availability of knives is not what caused the increase.

Now, it's true that the increase would not have occurred without the availability of knives. At the same time, we can choose (E) because it highlights the fact that the availability of knives cannot itself be to blame for the increase: there must have been some other factor that caused the increase since knives were available all along.

Could we argue that the author's point, which is not 100 percent clearly stated, could be that the increase never would have happened if knives were not available? Yes, we could. In that case, (E) would not highlight a flaw in the argument. At the same time, since no choice other than (E) works at all, we can go with the interpretation that the author's point is that the availability of knives is the factor that caused the increase, choose (E), and get this question correct.
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