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For years, the Ptolemaic view of a geocentric universe

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For years, the Ptolemaic view of a geocentric universe  [#permalink]

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New post Updated on: 02 Apr 2017, 02:21
2
16
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A
B
C
D
E

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  75% (hard)

Question Stats:

43% (01:12) correct 57% (01:09) wrong based on 468 sessions

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For years, the Ptolemaic view of a geocentric universe had held sway before the Copernican view became dominant.

A) had held sway before the Copernican view became dominant

B) held sway before the Copernican view became dominant

C) was held by a lot of people before the Copernican view became dominant

D) held its own before the Copernican view became dominant

E) held sway before the Copernican view was adopted by the society

Originally posted by navigator123 on 23 Jun 2012, 05:32.
Last edited by HKD1710 on 02 Apr 2017, 02:21, edited 1 time in total.
Underlined the sentence
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Re: For years, the Ptolemaic view of a geocentric universe  [#permalink]

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New post 24 Jun 2012, 10:14
The straight question is about what tense to use. It is obvious that Ptolemaic was the earlier view than the Copernican. Therefore, it is proper to use a past prefect to describe the earlier Ptolemaic and a simple past to denote the later Copernican. Chocie A does that neatly. All others use simple past for both events implying that both views existed contemporarily
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Re: For years, the Ptolemaic view of a geocentric universe  [#permalink]

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New post 24 Jun 2012, 14:17
1
question!
i am aware that Ptolemaic was the earlier view than the Copernican, and that it is proper to use a past prefect to describe the earlier Ptolemaic and a simple past to denote the later Copernican. But, by putting the word "before" in the sentence, isnt it evident that Ptolemaic was earlier than copernican? Thus, can we make the sentence cleaner by eliminating the past perfect since it is already know that Plto. came before Coper.?? This is why i chose B instead of A.
The MGMAT guide says clearly that if one can avoid using the past perfect, then do it, but always keeping in mind that the sentence can not loose its meaning.
Please correct me if am wrong.
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New post 24 Jun 2012, 16:03
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@santivilla: Let us look at this

Before its independence in 1947, Britain ruled India as a colony and they would relinquish power only after a long struggle by the native people.

A. Before its independence in 1947, Britain ruled India as a colony and they would relinquish power

B. Before independence in 1947, Britain had ruled India as a colony and relinquished power

C. Before its independence in 1947, India was ruled by Britain as a colony and they relinquished power

D. Before independence in 1947, India had been ruled as a colony by Britain, which relinquished power

E. Before independence in 1947, India had been a colony of the British, who relinquished power

Here the timeline is clear with the use of the time marker ‘before’. Still the official answer is E, which uses the past perfect. As per your claim. the answer should be either A or C, both of which do not use the past perfect, but simple past.

To quote MGMAT’s spokesperson trying to justify the use of past perfect:


Quote:
Also, for that before/after rule. It's not saying that you cannot have past perfect - only that it's not required any more. Typically, if the meaning of the sentence is "this one thing happened RIGHT before this other thing - very close in time" then I don't generally use past perfect. If they are still widely separated, though, then I may use it.

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Re: For years, the Ptolemaic view of a geocentric universe  [#permalink]

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New post 24 Jun 2012, 18:07
@daagh:
thanks for the explanation. Its all clear now.
cheers
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Re: For years, the Ptolemaic view of a geocentric universe  [#permalink]

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New post 16 Oct 2015, 12:41
The answer is A due to the following rule :-

With phrases like Since , in the last minutes , For centuries , In the last decade where all these are used as a time line we use
Present Prefect tense .

SO had ...

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Re: For years, the Ptolemaic view of a geocentric universe  [#permalink]

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New post 16 Oct 2015, 19:46
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both a and b are correct.
if there is time word which show the sequence we can use either did or had done.

gmat never test us to choose between a and b
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Re: For years, the Ptolemaic view of a geocentric universe  [#permalink]

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New post 19 Oct 2015, 11:37
easily A .. only this choice has the past perfect.
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Re: For years, the Ptolemaic view of a geocentric universe  [#permalink]

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New post 01 Dec 2015, 08:43
I was under the assumption that if 'before' is used, 'had' is not necessary?
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Re: For years, the Ptolemaic view of a geocentric universe  [#permalink]

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New post 30 Mar 2017, 05:10
Past and Past perfect tense.
Only answer A complies.
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Re: For years, the Ptolemaic view of a geocentric universe  [#permalink]

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New post 30 Mar 2017, 19:00
Though Daagh has given an explanation for the use of past perfect over Simple past, I am still not clear about the rule to be followed. I choose B, because use of 'before' did not necessitate the use of past perfect. I had seen a similar question in the past where it was clearly mentioned that if the use of simple past over past perfect does not change the meaning, and if words like before , since etc (which indicate precedence) are used, then one should avoid past perfect.

Can someone help and provide a clarity?


Thanks :)
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Re: For years, the Ptolemaic view of a geocentric universe  [#permalink]

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New post 30 Mar 2017, 23:32
Expert, I am not sure if this is an official question.

A use past perfect tense and B use simple past tense. But the word "before" correctly points the time sequence.
Option A and B, both are same from the tense prospective. With the real GMAT test this conflict?

Also..

rohitkumar77 wrote:
The answer is A due to the following rule :-

With phrases like Since , in the last minutes , For centuries , In the last decade where all these are used as a time line we use
Present Prefect tense .

SO had ...

Source : Manhattan SC


Is this correct???
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Re: For years, the Ptolemaic view of a geocentric universe  [#permalink]

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New post 02 Apr 2017, 02:17
RMD007 wrote:
Expert, I am not sure if this is an official question.

A use past perfect tense and B use simple past tense. But the word "before" correctly points the time sequence.
Option A and B, both are same from the tense prospective. With the real GMAT test this conflict?

Also..

rohitkumar77 wrote:
The answer is A due to the following rule :-

With phrases like Since , in the last minutes , For centuries , In the last decade where all these are used as a time line we use
Present Prefect tense .

SO had ...

Source : Manhattan SC


Is this correct???


In my opinion, option B is better because of the use of "before".

The first part is correct - "since" requires present perfect. However I do not see any connection of this concept to this question: there is no "since" and the tense is not present perfect.
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Re: For years, the Ptolemaic view of a geocentric universe  [#permalink]

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New post 13 Oct 2018, 12:20
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Re: For years, the Ptolemaic view of a geocentric universe   [#permalink] 13 Oct 2018, 12:20
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