Diya52
If a, b, c, and d are positive integers is \(\frac{a − b}{c − d} <−1\) ?
(1) |a – b| > |c – d|
(2) c > b > d > a
Let us analyse \(\frac{a − b}{c − d} <−1\).
The above will hold true when both of the below are true.
(A) Both a-b and c-d should have opposite sign. One positive and other negative.
Why? \(\frac{a-b}{c-d}\) is negative, so only possibilities are +/- or -/+.
-/- and +/+ are both positive.
(B) Absolute value of a-b is greater than that of c-d, that is, |a-b|>|c-d|.
Why? Now, \(\frac{a − b}{c − d} <−1\)
Multiply by -1, so \(\frac{ b-a}{c-d} >1\). This will be possible only when numerator is more than denominator, ignoring the sign.
Both of the above are true, the answer is yes. If we prove otherwise, the answer is NO.
(1) |a – b| > |c – d|
(B) is true but nothing about (A)
Insufficient
(2) c > b > d > a
c-d>0 and b-a>0 or a-b<0.
Thus both have opposite sign. (A) is true but nothing about (B).
Insufficient
Combined
Both (A) and (B) are true. Hence, the answer is yes.
Sufficient
C