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# If mv < pv < 0, is v < 0 ? m < p m < 0 mv

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Director
Joined: 10 Feb 2006
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If mv < pv < 0, is v < 0 ? m < p m < 0 mv  [#permalink]

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29 Jun 2008, 18:10
If mv m < P

not sure how to solve this one. Thanks

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SVP
Joined: 30 Apr 2008
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29 Jun 2008, 18:23
I think the answer is B.

The first one, m < p - this is not any new information. The stem tells us that mv < pv. This can be reduced to m < p. It is insufficient. It could be M = 2, P = 3 and v is negative. It could also be m = -3, p =-2 and v = 2 (or any positive number).

The second one tells us m is negative. If v * a negative is less than 0, then v must be positive. So if v is positive and p * v = negative, then p must also be negative. We know that v !< 0. Statement 2 is sufficient to answer the question; therefore B should be the correct answer.

If mv < pv < 0, is v < 0 ?

m < p
m < 0

mv <pv --- > m < P

not sure how to solve this one. Thanks

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J Allen Morris
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Joined: 12 Jun 2008
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30 Jun 2008, 05:26
2

(1) m < p: if v < 0, then we have mv > pv which is false. Therefore v < 0 is false ==> sufficient

(2) m < 0: if v < 0, then we have mv > 0 which is false. Therefore v < 0 is false ==> sufficient

Note : m v < p v doesn't mean that m < p (it depends on the sign of v)
Director
Joined: 01 Jan 2008
Posts: 601

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30 Jun 2008, 06:16
Oski wrote:

(1) m < p: if v < 0, then we have mv > pv which is false. Therefore v < 0 is false ==> sufficient

(2) m < 0: if v < 0, then we have mv > 0 which is false. Therefore v < 0 is false ==> sufficient

Note : m v < p v doesn't mean that m < p (it depends on the sign of v)

I like your approach. I looked at two inequalities:

mv < pv
mv < 0

and then followed logic similar to yours.
Current Student
Joined: 12 Jun 2008
Posts: 286
Schools: INSEAD Class of July '10

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30 Jun 2008, 06:17
2
jallenmorris wrote:
If all we know is m < p, that's not enough to know whether v < 0. Try plugging in some numbers for m, p, & v.

m=-1 p = 1. Now lets plug in -1 for v.
mv < pv
(-1)(-1) < (1)(-1)
This is 1 < -1 ...this is false
Try this:

m = 4, p = 5, v = 1

(4)(1) < (5)(1) ...this is true and v > 0. Knowing that m < p is not enough information to answer the question. #1 is insufficient.

Nope. (1) IS sufficient.

mv < pv is given by the question. Your example with m=-1, p=1 and v=-1 is therefore invalid since it doesn't satisfy mv < pv.

Having m<p, it is impossible to have v<0, since it would imply mv > pv, and we know this is false.
SVP
Joined: 30 Apr 2008
Posts: 1841
Location: Oklahoma City
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30 Jun 2008, 07:00
Oski,

I see what you mean.

First...the 2 inequalities...mv < pv & m < p MUST BOTH BE TRUE.

so if you have m < p and you flip the signs (simples negative being -1) for mv & pv, p will always be less than m.

m < p ... if you multiple by the same value of v, like -1 (anything else negative will be same principle just larger numbers) you get...

-m(v) > -p(v)

Thanks for your patience. I see now that the answer is D.

Kudos to you!
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J Allen Morris
**I'm pretty sure I'm right, but then again, I'm just a guy with his head up his a\$\$.

GMAT Club Premium Membership - big benefits and savings

Current Student
Joined: 12 Jun 2008
Posts: 286
Schools: INSEAD Class of July '10

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30 Jun 2008, 07:16
Exactly
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Re: If mv < pv < 0, is v < 0 ? m < p m < 0 mv  [#permalink]

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31 Mar 2017, 02:04
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Re: If mv < pv < 0, is v < 0 ? m < p m < 0 mv &nbs [#permalink] 31 Mar 2017, 02:04
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