Last visit was: 11 May 2024, 23:41 It is currently 11 May 2024, 23:41

Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
SORT BY:
Kudos
Tags:
Show Tags
Hide Tags
Intern
Intern
Joined: 24 Aug 2015
Posts: 20
Own Kudos [?]: 6 [3]
Given Kudos: 11
Location: India
GMAT 1: 720 Q51 V44
GPA: 3
WE:Engineering (Real Estate)
Send PM
Manager
Manager
Joined: 22 Jun 2015
Posts: 107
Own Kudos [?]: 10 [1]
Given Kudos: 5
Send PM
Intern
Intern
Joined: 25 Feb 2014
Posts: 17
Own Kudos [?]: 23 [1]
Given Kudos: 14
Location: India
Concentration: Technology, Strategy
GMAT 1: 750 Q50 V41
GPA: 3.29
WE:Information Technology (Computer Software)
Send PM
Manager
Manager
Joined: 03 Jul 2016
Status:Countdown Begins...
Posts: 242
Own Kudos [?]: 144 [1]
Given Kudos: 80
Location: India
Concentration: Technology, Strategy
Schools: IIMB
GMAT 1: 580 Q48 V22
GPA: 3.7
WE:Information Technology (Consulting)
Send PM
Re: If yz ≠ 0, is (x–y+z)/2z < (x/2z)–(y/2z)–(x/y)? [#permalink]
1
Kudos
It should be A.

After simplifying, we get equation x/y< -1/2

Since A confirms that x/y is less than -1/2, (x-y+z)/2z should be less than (x/2z)–(y/2z)–(x/y).

If option A would have been x/y >= -1/2, then also A would be the answer. Because it confirms that (x-y+z)/2z can not be less than (x/2z)–(y/2z)–(x/y).
Intern
Intern
Joined: 24 Aug 2015
Posts: 20
Own Kudos [?]: 6 [1]
Given Kudos: 11
Location: India
GMAT 1: 720 Q51 V44
GPA: 3
WE:Engineering (Real Estate)
Send PM
Re: If yz ≠ 0, is (x–y+z)/2z < (x/2z)–(y/2z)–(x/y)? [#permalink]
1
Kudos
RMD007 wrote:
It should be A.

After simplifying, we get equation x/y< -1/2

Since A confirms that x/y is less than -1/2, (x-y+z)/2z should be less than (x/2z)–(y/2z)–(x/y).

If option A would have been x/y >= -1/2, then also A would be the answer. Because it confirms that (x-y+z)/2z can not be less than (x/2z)–(y/2z)–(x/y).


Thanks a lot for the solution
Founder
Founder
Joined: 04 Dec 2002
Posts: 37411
Own Kudos [?]: 73155 [1]
Given Kudos: 18947
Location: United States (WA)
GMAT 1: 750 Q49 V42
GPA: 3
Send PM
Re: If yz ≠ 0, is (x–y+z)/2z < (x/2z)–(y/2z)–(x/y)? [#permalink]
1
Kudos
Expert Reply
Moving this to a better forum.
Manager
Manager
Joined: 28 Apr 2016
Posts: 71
Own Kudos [?]: 23 [1]
Given Kudos: 79
Send PM
Re: If yz ≠ 0, is (x–y+z)/2z < (x/2z)–(y/2z)–(x/y)? [#permalink]
1
Kudos
CrackuM7 wrote:
->(x–y+z)/2z < (x/2z)–(y/2z)–(x/y) and neither y nor z =0 as yz ≠ 0
->Expanding LHS -> (x/2z)–(y/2z) + (z/2z) < (x/2z)–(y/2z)–(x/y)
-> x/2z and y/2z cancels from botht he sides as z ≠ 0. And also z/2z = 1/2, as z ≠ 0
->1/2 < -(x/y)
->x/y < -1/2 as when +ve and negaitive signs are reveresed, the lessthan and greater than signs also reverses.

I hope this help..


Hi, I understand that on expanding we get (x/2z)–(y/2z) + (z/2z) < (x/2z)–(y/2z)–(x/y)

But I thought we cannot move the variables, unless we know the sign, so how can we cancel out (X/2z) and (y/2z)?
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Posts: 93161
Own Kudos [?]: 623024 [1]
Given Kudos: 81833
Send PM
Re: If yz ≠ 0, is (x–y+z)/2z < (x/2z)–(y/2z)–(x/y)? [#permalink]
1
Kudos
Expert Reply
ameyaprabhu wrote:
CrackuM7 wrote:
->(x–y+z)/2z < (x/2z)–(y/2z)–(x/y) and neither y nor z =0 as yz ≠ 0
->Expanding LHS -> (x/2z)–(y/2z) + (z/2z) < (x/2z)–(y/2z)–(x/y)
-> x/2z and y/2z cancels from botht he sides as z ≠ 0. And also z/2z = 1/2, as z ≠ 0
->1/2 < -(x/y)
->x/y < -1/2 as when +ve and negaitive signs are reveresed, the lessthan and greater than signs also reverses.

I hope this help..


Hi, I understand that on expanding we get (x/2z)–(y/2z) + (z/2z) < (x/2z)–(y/2z)–(x/y)

But I thought we cannot move the variables, unless we know the sign, so how can we cancel out (X/2z) and (y/2z)?


We cannot multiply/divide an inequality by the variable if we don't know its sign but we can add/subtract whatever we want to/from both sides of an inequality.

For example, we cannot divide xy > xz by x unless we know the sign of x. If x is positive, then we'll get y > z but if x is negative, then we'll get y < z (flip the sign when multiplying/dividing by negative number). On the other hand we can subtract x from both sides of x + y > x to get y > 0.

Hope it's clear.
Intern
Intern
Joined: 24 Aug 2015
Posts: 20
Own Kudos [?]: 6 [0]
Given Kudos: 11
Location: India
GMAT 1: 720 Q51 V44
GPA: 3
WE:Engineering (Real Estate)
Send PM
Re: If yz ≠ 0, is (x–y+z)/2z < (x/2z)–(y/2z)–(x/y)? [#permalink]
Thanks for the solution :-D
but my question is, after simplifying the equation it gives the result of same as statement 1. then how statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question being asked.
Intern
Intern
Joined: 11 Sep 2016
Posts: 48
Own Kudos [?]: [0]
Given Kudos: 2
Location: India
GMAT 1: 710 Q49 V37
GPA: 3.73
Send PM
Re: If yz ≠ 0, is (x–y+z)/2z < (x/2z)–(y/2z)–(x/y)? [#permalink]
mohdabbas5 wrote:
Thanks for the solution :-D
but my question is, after simplifying the equation it gives the result of same as statement 1. then how statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question being asked.


simplifying the equation does not give the result. It only simplifies the question asked. Statement 1 confirms the question asked.
Intern
Intern
Joined: 24 Aug 2015
Posts: 20
Own Kudos [?]: 6 [0]
Given Kudos: 11
Location: India
GMAT 1: 720 Q51 V44
GPA: 3
WE:Engineering (Real Estate)
Send PM
Re: If yz ≠ 0, is (x–y+z)/2z < (x/2z)–(y/2z)–(x/y)? [#permalink]
sangarajubharadwaj wrote:
mohdabbas5 wrote:
Thanks for the solution :-D
but my question is, after simplifying the equation it gives the result of same as statement 1. then how statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question being asked.


Hi mohdabbas5,

I know why you were confused.. Upon simplification of question stem, you get (x/y) <-1/2.... that is the question they are actually asking... if you know that x/y <-1/2 or >-1/2, you can answer the question either with a 'yes' or a 'No'...
' yes' or 'no' is what you need from the choices.. choice 1 directly answers your question... by using choice 1, you can say "yes, the value is less than -1/2"... but only using choice 2 you can't answer the question.... so A is the answer...
Now coming toyour confusion, it's tricky but also silly.. ?Usually we are accustomed to solve the given question stem, then apply the truth from the given choice and get to a common point where the question stem matches your calculation.. but here, ther's no need tocalculate anything.. it's directly given and you were confused....

For e.g.., the question stem is "Am I human?"

Option 1: "I am human"...

The question is so simple that u never encountered such questikn and the answer is too obvious.. so you were confused somehow...

Thanks
Hopethe explanation helps... But please don't yawn..?


Hi sangarajubharadwaj
Many thanks for an excellent explanation. i got the point.
Intern
Intern
Joined: 17 Jan 2017
Posts: 19
Own Kudos [?]: 48 [0]
Given Kudos: 955
GMAT 1: 540 Q42 V23
GPA: 3.85
Send PM
Re: If yz ≠ 0, is (x–y+z)/2z < (x/2z)–(y/2z)–(x/y)? [#permalink]
mohdabbas5 wrote:
If yz ≠ 0, is \(\frac{x–y+z}{2z} < \frac{x}{2z}–\frac{y}{2z}–\frac{x}{y}\)?


(1) \(\frac{x}{y} < -\frac{1}{2}\)

(2) xy < 0


But why option (2) is incorrect??? please explain.
Intern
Intern
Joined: 04 Feb 2018
Posts: 47
Own Kudos [?]: 18 [0]
Given Kudos: 5
Send PM
If yz ≠ 0, is (x–y+z)/2z < (x/2z)–(y/2z)–(x/y)? [#permalink]
sajon wrote:
mohdabbas5 wrote:
If yz ≠ 0, is \(\frac{x–y+z}{2z} < \frac{x}{2z}–\frac{y}{2z}–\frac{x}{y}\)?


(1) \(\frac{x}{y} < -\frac{1}{2}\)

(2) xy < 0


But why option (2) is incorrect??? please explain.


The best approach is to break down the question stem before going to Statements I and II. A detailed solution can be found in the attachment.
Attachments

Detailed Solution.doc [44 KiB]
Downloaded 77 times

GMAT Club Bot
If yz ≠ 0, is (x–y+z)/2z < (x/2z)–(y/2z)–(x/y)? [#permalink]
Moderator:
Math Expert
93161 posts

Powered by phpBB © phpBB Group | Emoji artwork provided by EmojiOne