I am having a hard time understanding this question
Options D and E look equally good and bad at the same time
For Option D1. How is the first boldface "a conclusion"? Where is the support to derive this conclusion?
2. The 2nd BF is fine
For Option E1. The 1st BF cannot be a conclusion again. However, it does seem like a statement that is "generally" accepted as true. The argument does not advocate its validity, but the statement in itself can be accepted as a "generally true statement".
2. The 2nd BF is fine.
I saw a similar question here -
https://gmatclub.com/forum/letter-to-th ... 70567.htmlThere is a mention of "a conclusion" in the right answer choice. My aforementioned conundrum stands true here as well. How can we justify something as a "conclusion" without giving supporting statements to derive such said conclusion?
I believe I am missing something.
Experts, please advise. Thank you.