SJKC wrote:
@VeritasKarishma
GMATNinjaHey everyone,
I still couldn't understand why C isn't the right answer.
Just to summarize of what I understood from the Question stem is that -
Jay says that there's 'no economical gain' in expanding the preventive medical care because the ones who are gaining from this care are people who got treated and living an extended life.
Sunil counters his argument by stating that Jay isn't considering the situations outside health and mentioned an example that says there's an economic gain in terms of how 'productive people' serve the society and that's an 'economic gain'.
Answer C says - Productive members of society are more likely than others to suffer preventable illnesses.
If I negate this - Unproductive members of society are more likely to suffer preventable diseases. In that case, it means that there's no economic gain and the argument falls apart.
Am I missing anything here?
Thank you!
You can check out
this link for a breakdown of the passage, and
this link for a more detailed comparison of (C) and (D). But just in case, here are a few more thoughts on why (C) is wrong.
Let's start by analyzing Sunil's response to Jay.
Sunil points out that "society suffers an economic loss when ANY of its productive members suffer from preventable illness." So if ANY productive member of society suffers from a preventable illness, Sunil thinks there will be "economic loss." This counters Jay's idea that linking preventive medical care to "great societal economic gains" is misguided.
In other words, Sunil points out that economic loss occurs when ANY productive member of society gets a preventable illness. So presumably, preventive medicine will reduce economic loss, thus countering Jay's argument.
Let's now consider (C):
Quote:
(C) Productive members of society are more likely than others to suffer preventable illnesses.
Is this an assumption of Sunil's argument? In other words, is it
absolutely necessary for Sunil's argument to hold up?
Not at all. As long as the economic gains caused by preventive care outweigh the losses, Sunil's argument holds up. But that doesn't
require that productive members of society are more likely than others to suffer preventable illness. Maybe non-productive members are more likely to suffer from preventable illness (as you say in your analysis)? Maybe both groups are equally likely? Either way, Sunil's argument isn't damaged.
Keep in mind that even if non-productive members of society get more preventable illness than productive members, that doesn't mean that economic losses will outweigh economic gains. It could be that the economic gains from treating productive members of society far outweigh the costs of treating unproductive members, even if there are more unproductive members with preventable illnesses.
After all, we have no idea exactly how much money is gained or lost through the preventive care of different types of people. But as long as ENOUGH productive members of society get preventable illnesses (however many that might be), the economic gains of preventive care could outweigh the losses, and Sunil's argument holds up.
In other words, since it isn't
absolutely required by Sunil's argument, (C) isn't an assumption, and we can throw it out.
I hope that helps!