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16 Sep 2014, 00:25
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16 Sep 2014, 00:25
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Official Solution:
Is \(\frac{T}{S} > \frac{F}{G}\)?
(1) \(T < S\)
This statement is clearly insufficient, as we know nothing about F and G.
(2) \(F > G\)
Similarly, this statement is clearly insufficient, as we know nothing about T and S.
(1)+(2) It's crucial to note that we don't know the signs of T, S, F, and G. If we were given that S and G are positive, then from (1) we'd infer that \(\frac{T}{S} < 1\), and from (2) we'd infer that \(\frac{F}{G} > 1\), which would lead to \(\frac{T}{S} < 1 < \frac{F}{G}\). For instance, consider \(T = 1\), \(S = 2\), \(G =1\) and \(F = 2\). However, if S and G are negative, then from (1) we'd infer that \(\frac{T}{S} > 1\), and from (2) we'd infer that \(\frac{F}{G} < 1\), which would lead to \(\frac{T}{S} > 1 > \frac{F}{G}\). For instance, consider \(T = -2\), \(S = -1\), \(G =-2\) and \(F = -1\). Not sufficient.
Answer: E
Is \(\frac{T}{S} > \frac{F}{G}\)?
(1) \(T < S\)
This statement is clearly insufficient, as we know nothing about F and G.
(2) \(F > G\)
Similarly, this statement is clearly insufficient, as we know nothing about T and S.
(1)+(2) It's crucial to note that we don't know the signs of T, S, F, and G. If we were given that S and G are positive, then from (1) we'd infer that \(\frac{T}{S} < 1\), and from (2) we'd infer that \(\frac{F}{G} > 1\), which would lead to \(\frac{T}{S} < 1 < \frac{F}{G}\). For instance, consider \(T = 1\), \(S = 2\), \(G =1\) and \(F = 2\). However, if S and G are negative, then from (1) we'd infer that \(\frac{T}{S} > 1\), and from (2) we'd infer that \(\frac{F}{G} < 1\), which would lead to \(\frac{T}{S} > 1 > \frac{F}{G}\). For instance, consider \(T = -2\), \(S = -1\), \(G =-2\) and \(F = -1\). Not sufficient.
Answer: E
16 Jul 2015, 01:13
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shanti47
That's not correct.
T < S means T/S < 1 only if S is positive, if S is negative, then T/S > 1. The same for F < G.
