Foreheadson
Bunuel
Is \(\frac{4p}{11}\) a positive integer?
(1) \(p\) is a prime number
(2) \(2p\) is divisible by 11
Hi Bunuel,
During my mock exam I saw very clearly that there was 0, but the 2nd sentence says 2p is divisible by 11. And during the exam I was thinking: does GMAT mean 0 is divisible by 11 in these types of questions? I was stuck on a technicality. Then I thought that "divisible by 11" would mean the same as 2p is a multiple of 11. And I have seen plenty of problems where multiples of 11 are numbers more than or equal to 11 (so not 0). According to the logic given in your explanation, 0 is divisible by any number (I am also aware that GMAT does not test 0/0 cases). So, If I want to avoid any any doubts on the exam, should I think that whenever the problem says divisible by some number 0 is always an alternative?
And also, I would be glad to hear about the multiples of numbers. Am I correct at least about this matter (or is 0 multiple of any number)?
0 is divisible by all integers (except 0 itself). Divisible means divisible without a remainder, so integer x is divisible by integer y, means that x/y = integer. Since 0/11 = 0 = integer, then 0 is divisible by 11 (0 is a multiple of 11).
Next, multiples of 11 are ..., -22, -11, 0, 11, 22, 33, ... Good news is that on the GMAT all divisibility/remainder questions are limited to positive integers only. So, a question will tell you in advance that all unknowns are positive integers. Though you still should know properties of 0 and that negative integers also can be multiples of a number just in case.
Hope it's clear.
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