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Bunuel
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is there any other way of doing this question?
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is there any other way of doing this question?

Check here: when-an-unfair-coin-is-tossed-twice-the-probability-of-getting-one-198795.html
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I have edited the question and the solution by adding more details to enhance its clarity. I hope it is now easier to understand.
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Hi Bunuel,

Can you explain how it is 2 times P(T)*P(H)? Is it because there is two possibilities of getting 1H & 1T (ie. HT & TH) or something else that I am missing.

Thanks
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Hi Bunuel,

Can you explain how it is 2 times P(T)*P(H)? Is it because there is two possibilities of getting 1H & 1T (ie. HT & TH) or something else that I am missing.

Thanks

Exactly. We can get one tail and one head in two distinct sequences: either (head followed by tail) or (tail followed by head). The probability for each sequence is x(1 - x). Therefore, the overall probability of getting one tail and one head, is x(1 - x) + x(1 - x) = 2x(1 - x).
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I think this is a high-quality question and I agree with explanation.
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KarishmaB
Hey! I used the following approach:
P(HT) + P(TH) = 1/3 -> 2x = 1/3 -> x = 1/6
HHTT -> we have to select two H out of 4 -> 4!/2!2! = 6

P(HHTT) = 1/6 * 1/6 * 6 = 1/6

Let me know if that's correct.
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KarishmaB
Hey! I used the following approach:
P(HT) + P(TH) = 1/3 -> 2x = 1/3 -> x = 1/6
HHTT -> we have to select two H out of 4 -> 4!/2!2! = 6

P(HHTT) = 1/6 * 1/6 * 6 = 1/6

Let me know if that's correct.

Yes, it is.

But note here:"HHTT -> we have to select two H out of 4 -> 4!/2!2! = 6"

We are not selecting 2 H out of 4. We are arranging HTHT ( = 1/6 * 1/6) into all other possible arrangements in 4!/2!*2! ways.
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I did not quite understand the solution. I need help in understanding the mid part of solution where P (two heads and two tails) is mentioned. Why are we squaring the X and (1-x)? In case of P (one tail and one head) the X and (1-x) are not squared. Thanks
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I did not quite understand the solution. I need help in understanding the mid part of solution where P (two heads and two tails) is mentioned. Why are we squaring the X and (1-x)? In case of P (one tail and one head) the X and (1-x) are not squared. Thanks

Let's break it down simply and clearly.

First, a quick recap of what x means:

  • x = probability of getting heads
  • 1 - x = probability of getting tails

1. Why is P(one head and one tail) = \(2 * x * (1 - x)\)?

When tossing the coin twice, you get one head and one tail in two different ways:

  • First toss heads, second toss tails - probability = \(x * (1 - x)\)
  • First toss tails, second toss heads - probability = \((1 - x) * x\)

So total = \(x * (1 - x) + (1 - x) * x = 2 * x * (1 - x)\)

2. Why is P(two heads and two tails) = \(6 * x^2 * (1 - x)^2\)?

Now we toss the coin four times and want exactly two heads and two tails.

We need:

  • Two of the tosses to be heads: \(x * x = x^2\)
  • The other two tosses to be tails: \((1 - x) * (1 - x) = (1 - x)^2\)

And we must multiply by how many different ways we can arrange two H's and two T's in four tosses:

  • This is a combinatorics problem: number of ways = \(\frac{4!}{2! * 2!} = 6\)

So total probability = \(6 * x^2 * (1 - x)^2 = 6 * (x * (1 - x))^2\)

So why is it squared now?

Because we need 2 heads and 2 tails, so:

  • Probability of heads happening twice: \(x * x = x^2\)
  • Probability of tails happening twice: \((1 - x) * (1 - x) = (1 - x)^2\)

When you multiply: \(x^2 * (1 - x)^2 = (x * (1 - x))^2\)

That's why the expression is squared for the 4-toss scenario, but not for the 2-toss one.
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