MathRevolution
[GMAT math practice question]
If \(a>b>c>d>0\), is \(d<4\)?
\(1) \frac{1}{c} + \frac{1}{d} > \frac{1}{2}\)
\(2) (\frac{1}{a})+(\frac{1}{b})+(\frac{1}{c})+(\frac{1}{d})=1\)
\(a > b > c > d > 0\,\,\,\,\, \Rightarrow \,\,\,\,0 < {1 \over a} < {1 \over b} < {1 \over c} < {1 \over d}\,\,\,\,\left( * \right)\)
\(d\,\,\mathop < \limits^? \,\,4\)
\(\left( 1 \right)\,\,{1 \over c} + {1 \over d} > {1 \over 2}\,\,\,\,\mathop \Rightarrow \limits^{\left( {**} \right)} \,\,\,\left\langle {{\rm{YES}}} \right\rangle\)
\(\left( {**} \right)\,\,\,d \ge 4\,\,\,\,\,\mathop \Rightarrow \limits^{\left( * \right)} \,\,\,c > 4\,\,\,\,\,\, \Rightarrow \,\,\,\,\,\,{1 \over c} + {1 \over d} < {1 \over 4} + {1 \over 4} = {1 \over 2}\,\,\,\,\, \Rightarrow \,\,\,\,\,\,{\rm{impossible}}\)
\(\left( 2 \right)\,\,\,1 = {1 \over a} + {1 \over b} + {1 \over c} + {1 \over d}\,\,\mathop < \limits^{\left( * \right)} \,\,4\left( {{1 \over d}} \right)\,\,\,\,\,\mathop \Rightarrow \limits^{ \cdot \,d\, > \,0} \,\,\,\,\,1 \cdot d < 4\,\,\,\, \Rightarrow \,\,\,\,\left\langle {{\rm{YES}}} \right\rangle\)
The correct answer is therefore (D).
We follow the notations and rationale taught in the
GMATH method.
Regards,
Fabio.