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Sub 505 Level|   Humanities|   Long Passage|               
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Sajjad1994
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Hi Harsh2111s

It seems like you misinterpreted either those lines from the passage or question stem.

The Question stem is asking what some scientists have suggested and the passage denies the suggestion of the scientists by stating that the wages are not higher at entry level.

Correct Interpretation:

Scientists said "Women get higher entry-level salaries"
Author Said "No its not true from the evidence of the study".

Hope it helps and give kudos if u like my explanation.

Thanks
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1) Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

A) An example is cited and elaborate to explain a new theory.
B) A puzzle is described, and two competing solutions are analyzed.
C) A theory is summarized and applied to a concrete situation, and data supporting it are presented.
D) A phenomenon is noted, an explanation is put forward, and the explanation is criticized.
E) An observation is confirmed and explained by the application of a new theory.

Soln:
At first ,author talks about a phenomenon ( refer second sentence of first para..This phenomenon)- clearly states author is talking about phenomenon- why women work in female dominated jobs and at lower wages.
Next author presents Solomon Polachek explanation or his theory to explain this phenomenon. Where Solomon Polachek says that difference in job continuity leads to gender difference in the job chosen by male and female worker.
LAst para - author presents drawback of Solomon Polachek theory by saying that its not supported by data.

Now if we check ans choices only ans choice D matches the outline of the passage.

so Correct ans is Choice D


2) According to the passage, which of the following is true of the majority of female workers?

A) They are given raises as frequently as male workers are.
B) They are more interested in steady employment than male workers are.
C) They are laid off more often than male workers are.
D) They are uneasy about the possibility of wage depreciation.
E) They are employed in occupations dominated by women.

Soln

"Most women still work in female-dominated jobs and at lower wages than men typically earn."
First sentence of the first para clearly states that it is true that most female work in female dominated jobs.

Using POE we can eliminate other choices.

Clearly Ans choice E is correct



3) Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?



Soln: Remember that Passage talks about a phenomenon- why women work in female dominated jobs and at lower wages than men.
Most part of the passage presents Polachek's explanation for this phenomenon. And later author criticize the explanation by saying that it is not supported by empirical evidence.

Lets check here each ans choice and use POE to arrive at best ans

A) Polachek’s explanation of job segregation by gender does not adequately explain why women work predominantly in lower-paying, female-dominated jobs.
Looks good so lets keep it for now

B) Human capital theory has been used by a number of supply-side economists, most notably Polachek, to explain job segregation by gender.

- Passage talks about polachek's explanation using human capital theory .But main idea is nothing related to the use of this by number of economist and by polachek.
So eliminate B

C) Recent empirical work indicates that wage depreciation occurs at roughly the same rates in male- and female-dominated jobs and that these jobs do not differ significantly in the entry-level salaries they offer.

Last paragraph talks about empirical evidence. But the main idea is not about what empirical work indicates. It just talks about a point mentioned in last para.
So eliminate choice C


D) New economic theories explaining job segregation by gender will eventually help employers to equalize the gender composition of their work forces.

There is no such discussion of new economic theories.

E) There is little evidence to support the claim that individuals consciously choose occupations on the basis of maximizing lifetime earnings.

"Thus, according to Polachek, differences in employment continuity lead to gender differences in the jobs chosen to maximize lifetime earnings, and hence gender segregation in the workplace is a product of rational pecuniary choices made by male and female workers".

PAssage does not support option E. So eliminate.

Ans choice A is correct ans

4) According to the passage, some economists have suggested that which of the following is a characteristic of female-dominated jobs as compared to male-dominated jobs?

A) They provide greater job security.
B) They pay higher starting salaries.
C) They require less pre employment training.
D) They have higher depreciation penalties.
E) They give leaves of absence more readily.


Refer the last para- "as some other economists have proposed, do female-dominated jobs have higher entry-level salaries, though much lower wage-appreciation rates, than male-dominated jobs"

Ans choice B- is correct ans. Rest of the ans choice can be easily eliminated



Hope that helps!
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Can anybody help with Question 8, I am unable to figure out what cue should I get from the passage, which leads me to the answer?
I guess this is how I got on with the question during analysis.

If wage differentials by gender were to persist, it can be inferred from the passage that supply-side economists like Polachek would be likely to draw which of the following conclusions?

(A) Wage depreciation has occurred even during short periods of unemployment - Timing of the unemployment was not discussed in the passage
(B) Wage depreciation penalties continue to be uneven across occupations.
(C) Human-capital theory continues to apply to occupational choices of males but not to those of females. - Only this is the option I was able to eleminate while doing in real time :(
(D) Gender stereotyping continues to have a strong effect on occupational choice. - According to passage, never was the gender stereotyping was an issue for occupational choice in the first place.
(E) Individual self-interest continues to be over-ridden in planning employment continuity. - Individual self-interest was not there in the first place

Let me know if I screwed it up somehwere

Thanks in Advance!!:)
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The passage discusses the phenomenon of gender-based wage differentials and how supply-side economists have tried to explain it. Solomon Polachek, a supply-side economist, posits that women choose occupations with low depreciation penalties because they are more likely to plan intermittent full-time employment, while men plan continuous full-time employment. However, the passage notes that empirical evidence does not support this theory.

The question asks what conclusion supply-side economists like Polachek would draw if wage differentials by gender were to persist. From the passage, it is clear that Polachek believes that market forces and rational pecuniary choices made by male and female workers should eventually lead to the disappearance of inequities in economic status engendered by discrimination. Therefore, if gender-based wage differentials were to persist, it can be inferred that supply-side economists like Polachek would conclude that their theory is incorrect or incomplete and that other factors may be at play, such as discrimination or social biases.

Of the answer choices, option B is the closest to this inference. It states that wage depreciation penalties continue to be uneven across occupations, which implies that market forces and rational choices alone cannot explain gender-based wage differentials.

Therefore, the correct answer is (B).

Ps1810
Can anybody help with Question 8, I am unable to figure out what cue should I get from the passage, which leads me to the answer?
I guess this is how I got on with the question during analysis.

If wage differentials by gender were to persist, it can be inferred from the passage that supply-side economists like Polachek would be likely to draw which of the following conclusions?

(A) Wage depreciation has occurred even during short periods of unemployment - Timing of the unemployment was not discussed in the passage
(B) Wage depreciation penalties continue to be uneven across occupations.
(C) Human-capital theory continues to apply to occupational choices of males but not to those of females. - Only this is the option I was able to eleminate while doing in real time :(
(D) Gender stereotyping continues to have a strong effect on occupational choice. - According to passage, never was the gender stereotyping was an issue for occupational choice in the first place.
(E) Individual self-interest continues to be over-ridden in planning employment continuity. - Individual self-interest was not there in the first place

Let me know if I screwed it up somehwere

Thanks in Advance!!:)
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Sajjad1994
The passage discusses the phenomenon of gender-based wage differentials and how supply-side economists have tried to explain it. Solomon Polachek, a supply-side economist, posits that women choose occupations with low depreciation penalties because they are more likely to plan intermittent full-time employment, while men plan continuous full-time employment. However, the passage notes that empirical evidence does not support this theory.

The question asks what conclusion supply-side economists like Polachek would draw if wage differentials by gender were to persist. From the passage, it is clear that Polachek believes that market forces and rational pecuniary choices made by male and female workers should eventually lead to the disappearance of inequities in economic status engendered by discrimination. Therefore, if gender-based wage differentials were to persist, it can be inferred that supply-side economists like Polachek would conclude that their theory is incorrect or incomplete and that other factors may be at play, such as discrimination or social biases.

Of the answer choices, option B is the closest to this inference. It states that wage depreciation penalties continue to be uneven across occupations, which implies that market forces and rational choices alone cannot explain gender-based wage differentials.

Therefore, the correct answer is (B).

Ps1810
Can anybody help with Question 8, I am unable to figure out what cue should I get from the passage, which leads me to the answer?
I guess this is how I got on with the question during analysis.

If wage differentials by gender were to persist, it can be inferred from the passage that supply-side economists like Polachek would be likely to draw which of the following conclusions?

(A) Wage depreciation has occurred even during short periods of unemployment - Timing of the unemployment was not discussed in the passage
(B) Wage depreciation penalties continue to be uneven across occupations.
(C) Human-capital theory continues to apply to occupational choices of males but not to those of females. - Only this is the option I was able to eleminate while doing in real time :(
(D) Gender stereotyping continues to have a strong effect on occupational choice. - According to passage, never was the gender stereotyping was an issue for occupational choice in the first place.
(E) Individual self-interest continues to be over-ridden in planning employment continuity. - Individual self-interest was not there in the first place

Let me know if I screwed it up somehwere

Thanks in Advance!!:)

Sajjad1994, for option E , doesn't the first paragraph mention that play of self interest will eventually lead to the disappearance of inequities in economic status engendered by discrimination ?
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Sajjad1994, for option E , doesn't the first paragraph mention that play of self interest will eventually lead to the disappearance of inequities in economic status engendered by discrimination ?

Option (E) states that individual self-interest continues to be over-ridden in planning employment continuity, which is not supported by the passage. The passage argues that gender differences in employment continuity lead to differences in the jobs chosen by men and women, and that women may choose occupations with low depreciation penalties in order to maximize lifetime earnings. This implies that both men and women make rational pecuniary choices based on their self-interest. Therefore, option (E) is not a likely conclusion that supply-side economists like Polachek would draw if wage differentials by gender were to persist.

Instead, the passage suggests that supply-side economists may draw the conclusion that wage depreciation penalties continue to be uneven across occupations (option B). This is because Polachek's theory emphasizes the role of depreciation of human capital in determining wage differentials, and the passage notes that women in predominantly male occupations suffer the same wage depreciation rates as women in predominantly female occupations, contrary to Polachek's prediction. This suggests that there may be other factors besides depreciation of human capital that contribute to wage differentials by gender, such as discrimination or societal expectations about gender roles in the workplace.
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Explanation

2. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the majority of female workers?

Difficulty Level: 700

Explanation

The passage states that "Most women still work in female-dominated jobs," indicating that the majority of female workers are employed in occupations where women are the majority. This suggests that there is a gender segregation in the workplace, with women tending to occupy jobs that are predominantly female.

The passage does not provide information to support options (A), (B), (C), or (D). There is no mention of the frequency of raises given to female workers compared to male workers, their interest in steady employment, the rate of layoffs, or their concerns about wage depreciation. Therefore, these options are not supported by the information provided in the passage.

Option (E), on the other hand, aligns with the statement in the passage that women predominantly work in female-dominated jobs. This indicates that the majority of female workers are employed in occupations that are dominated by women.

Answer: E
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Explanation

3. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?

Difficulty Level: 650

Explanation

A) Polachek’s explanation of job segregation by gender does not adequately explain why women work predominantly in lower-paying, female-dominated jobs.

This option accurately captures the main idea of the passage. It highlights that Polachek's theory, which focuses on depreciation of human capital during periods of leave, fails to explain why women tend to be concentrated in lower-paying, female-dominated jobs. The passage presents empirical evidence that contradicts Polachek's theory, indicating that wage depreciation occurs at similar rates in both male- and female-dominated jobs, debunking the notion that women consciously choose occupations based on maximizing lifetime earnings.

B) Human capital theory has been used by a number of supply-side economists, most notably Polachek, to explain job segregation by gender.

While this option mentions the use of human capital theory by economists, including Polachek, it does not capture the central theme of the passage. The focus of the passage is not solely on the application of human capital theory or its use by Polachek, but rather on the limitations and lack of empirical support for Polachek's specific explanation of job segregation by gender.

C) Recent empirical work indicates that wage depreciation occurs at roughly the same rates in male- and female-dominated jobs and that these jobs do not differ significantly in the entry-level salaries they offer.

This option accurately summarizes the findings presented in the passage. The passage discusses the empirical evidence that challenges Polachek's theory. It states that wage depreciation occurs at similar rates in both male- and female-dominated jobs, and there is no significant difference in entry-level salaries between these types of jobs. This contradicts Polachek's predictions and suggests that his explanation does not adequately account for the gender segregation in the workplace.

D) New economic theories explaining job segregation by gender will eventually help employers to equalize the gender composition of their workforces.

This option goes beyond the scope of the passage and introduces a speculative notion about the potential impact of new economic theories on equalizing gender composition in the workforce. The passage does not discuss any new economic theories or their potential effects on employers. Therefore, this option does not accurately capture the main idea of the passage.

E) There is little evidence to support the claim that individuals consciously choose occupations on the basis of maximizing lifetime earnings.

While the passage does challenge the notion that individuals consciously choose occupations based on maximizing lifetime earnings, this option does not encapsulate the main idea of the passage as a whole. The passage primarily focuses on the inadequacy of Polachek's explanation for job segregation by gender and the lack of empirical evidence supporting it, rather than broadly addressing the claim of conscious occupational choice for lifetime earnings maximization.

Answer: A
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Explanation

4. According to the passage, some economists have suggested that which of the following is a characteristic of female-dominated jobs as compared to male-dominated jobs?

Difficulty Level: 750

Explanation

A) They provide greater job security.

The passage does not specifically address the level of job security in female-dominated jobs compared to male-dominated jobs. The focus of the passage is on the theory of depreciation of human capital during periods of leave and its impact on wage depreciation. There is no mention or discussion about job security in relation to gender-dominated jobs. Therefore, this option is not supported by the information provided in the passage.

B) They pay higher starting salaries.

The passage mentions that some other economists have proposed that female-dominated jobs have higher entry-level salaries compared to male-dominated jobs. Although the passage also states that these jobs have lower wage-appreciation rates, it does suggest that female-dominated jobs may offer higher starting salaries. Therefore, this option is supported by the information provided in the passage.

C) They require less preemployment training.

The passage does not provide any information about the preemployment training requirements of female-dominated jobs versus male-dominated jobs. The focus of the passage is primarily on the theory of depreciation of human capital and its impact on wage depreciation. Since there is no discussion or mention of preemployment training, this option is not supported by the passage.

D) They have higher depreciation penalties.

The passage contradicts the notion that female-dominated jobs have higher depreciation penalties compared to male-dominated jobs. It states that women in both predominantly male and predominantly female occupations experience similar wage depreciation rates. This means that the depreciation penalty, or the drop in real wages during periods away from employment, is not higher in female-dominated jobs compared to male-dominated jobs. Therefore, this option is not supported by the information provided in the passage.

E) They give leaves of absence more readily.

The passage does not discuss or compare the willingness of female-dominated jobs and male-dominated jobs to grant leaves of absence. The main focus of the passage is on the theory of depreciation of human capital and its impact on wage depreciation, rather than the policies regarding leaves of absence. Therefore, this option is not supported by the passage.

In summary, the correct answer is B) They pay higher starting salaries, as the passage suggests that some economists have proposed that female-dominated jobs may have higher entry-level salaries compared to male-dominated jobs.

Answer: C
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Explanation

8. If wage differentials by gender were to persist, it can be inferred from the passage that supply-side economists like Polachek would be likely to draw which of the following conclusions?

Difficulty Level: 750

Explanation

The passage discusses Solomon Polachek's supply-side explanation for job segregation by gender and his theory of human capital depreciation during periods of leave from work. Polachek argues that wage depreciation occurs when a person has lower real wages upon returning to employment compared to when they quit. He further suggests that some occupations have greater risks of wage depreciation than others, and women, who are more likely to plan intermittent full-time employment, may choose occupations with low depreciation penalties to maximize lifetime earnings.

However, the passage goes on to state that Polachek's theory is not supported by empirical evidence. It contradicts Polachek's prediction that women in predominantly male occupations suffer higher wage depreciation rates compared to women in predominantly female occupations. The passage concludes that the depreciation penalty, the amount by which real wages drop during periods away from employment, is no lower in female-dominated jobs compared to male-dominated jobs. Additionally, it states that female-dominated jobs do not have higher entry-level salaries or lower wage appreciation rates compared to male-dominated jobs.

Based on this information, it can be inferred that if wage differentials by gender were to persist, supply-side economists like Polachek would be likely to draw the conclusion that wage depreciation penalties continue to be uneven across occupations. The passage does not support the other options. It does not mention short periods of unemployment leading to wage depreciation (option A), human-capital theory applying differently to males and females (option C), gender stereotyping having a strong effect on occupational choice (option D), or individual self-interest being overridden in planning employment continuity (option E).

Answer: B
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Sajjad1994, can we please have the explanations for questions 6,7 as well?
Sajjad1994
The passage discusses the phenomenon of gender-based wage differentials and how supply-side economists have tried to explain it. Solomon Polachek, a supply-side economist, posits that women choose occupations with low depreciation penalties because they are more likely to plan intermittent full-time employment, while men plan continuous full-time employment. However, the passage notes that empirical evidence does not support this theory.

The question asks what conclusion supply-side economists like Polachek would draw if wage differentials by gender were to persist. From the passage, it is clear that Polachek believes that market forces and rational pecuniary choices made by male and female workers should eventually lead to the disappearance of inequities in economic status engendered by discrimination. Therefore, if gender-based wage differentials were to persist, it can be inferred that supply-side economists like Polachek would conclude that their theory is incorrect or incomplete and that other factors may be at play, such as discrimination or social biases.

Of the answer choices, option B is the closest to this inference. It states that wage depreciation penalties continue to be uneven across occupations, which implies that market forces and rational choices alone cannot explain gender-based wage differentials.

Therefore, the correct answer is (B).


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Aishna1034
Sajjad1994, can we please have the explanations for questions 6,7 as well?


Please check here: https://gmatclub.com/forum/most-women-s ... l#p3209496
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