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Gladiator59
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IMO A

conclusion:Thus, a young child’s taste preferences can be affected by the type of food he or she has been exposed to.

assumption: there is no other factor responsible for the taste preference of kids, others than continuous feeding of salty food.

(A) Two-year-olds do not naturally prefer salty food to sweet food.--correct
(B) A child’s taste preference usually changes between age one and age two.---Opposite, weakens the conclusion
(C) Two-year-olds do not naturally dislike salty food so much that they would not choose it over some other foods.--opposite, to conclusion
(D) The salty food fed to infants in order to change their taste preferences must taste pleasant.--irrelevant to argument
(E) Sweet food is better for infant development than is salty food. ---irrelevant
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D and E are simply irrelevant.

Out of the remaining three options, I think A is the right one. The passage is arguing that by consistently feeding a one year old salty food, one can alter their natural preferences (for sweet food over salty food). For this argument to stand, the one year olds must first have a natural preference for sweet food. Looking at the other two options, you will see that B actually weakens the argument by stating that the change in tastes is a natural process, which undercuts the idea that feeding the one year old salty foods will change their preference. C again weakens the argument by stating that one year olds actually do not like salty foods less than other types (including sweet).
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As per the author of the argument, it is the exposure to "salt food" that led to the change of preferences. However, there could be other reasons why a young child could have shifted to salty food other than for the reason that he was exposed to such foods. What if the child normally/naturally is inclined to eat salty food by the time he/she reaches the age of 2.

Hence, an assumption here would be there there is "NO OUTSIDE CAUSE OTHER THAN EXPOSURE TO THE CHILD that led to change of preferences"
Option A does the job beautifully.

Hope this helps

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What i did wrong in this question is firstly i misread the first option A and secondly didn't focus on the main theme exposure of a type of food to a one-year-old for developing taste.

though i eliminated option C, D, and E
But also eliminated option A due to misreading of two year old to one year old.

Correct Explanation :

(A) states: “Two-year-olds do not naturally prefer salty food to sweet food.”

Why is this needed? Because if two-year-olds naturally shifted to liking salty more than sweet even without exposure, then the observed change in taste could simply be due to natural development, not exposure. That would undermine the conclusion that exposure caused the change.

So, the argument assumes that the change doesn’t naturally happen in two-year-olds (without salty food exposure) — exactly what (A) states.

However, I choose option B as the correct option
(B) says: “A child’s taste preference usually changes between age one and age two.”

This suggests that taste preference changes normally, regardless of exposure. But the argument claims that exposure to salty food causes the shift.

If (B) were true, it would actually weaken the conclusion (by implying taste changes anyway). Thus, it is not an assumption required by the argument.
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