Question 3
rashwiniyer
Referring to the line -
"Since gender concentration exists (for example, 80 percent of clerical workers are women), other economists argue that a comparable worth standard, which would mandate that women and men in any jobs that require comparable training and responsibility be paid the same, should be applied instead"
what is wrong with option E of Q3?
According to the bit of the passage that you've quoted, "comparable worth" means that people who are ALREADY in different jobs that require the same amount of training should be paid the same. For instance, if it takes six months to become a clerk and six months to become a taxi driver, then clerks and taxi drivers should be paid equally.
So, no one in the passage is arguing that "women [should receive] the same kind and amount of job training that men receive," as stated in (E). They just think that women who ALREADY have the same amount of training as men should be paid equally, even if they are working in different roles.
(E) is out for question 3.
I hope that helps!