Raffio
Mike- I also chose B, so maybe I can elaborate, as I'm still having a hard time understanding the correct answer. It's pretty straightforward, but I thought the subject was "vast collections of music", which I believe is plural. My understanding is that a subject cannot be a part of a prepositional phrase. Could you explain why this is different in this case? Is it because vast collections is different than music or that these are two separate things? If the sentence was written like "...audiophiles can accumulate a vast collection of music", I would have picked B.
Thanks for your help.
Dear
Raffio,
I'm happy to respond.
Here's version (B), the OA:
Since digital recording offers essentially perfect reproduction--on compact discs, digital audiotapes, or digital videodiscs--audiophiles can accumulate vast collections of music, transferring it from one format to another, copying it, and digitally altering it with little effort and no damage to the sound quality.
First, let's be clear about a few things.
1) The rule that "
a subject cannot be a part of a prepositional phrase" needs to be qualified: "
the subject of a clause cannot be the object of a prepositional phrase in that same clause."
Keep in mind that the GMAT SC loves to
nest phrases & clauses, so that the object of a preposition in one clause might be equivalent to the subject of another clause:
I took a photo of a friend who lost a bet to me.
The first part, the green part, is the independent clause, and in this clause, the word 'friend" is the object of a preposition. The second part, in purple, is a dependent clause, a noun-modifying clause, (technically, a relative clause), and the subject of this is the relative pronoun "
who," which is equivalent to "
friend."
2) The only full verb in this sentence, the main verb of the sentence is "
can accumulate," and the subject of this verb, the main subject of the sentence, is "
audiophiles."
3) My friend, I think you are confusing the
subject-verb relationship with the
antecedent-pronoun relationship. I believe you are asking about the singular pronouns "
it"--why are these pronouns singular? What is the
antecedent of these pronouns? Pronouns don't have "
subjects"--they have "
antecedents."
4) While there are some restrictions on where a subject can or can't be, the antecedent of a pronoun can be a noun playing any noun role in the sentence--it can be a subject, a direct object, or the object of a preposition.
Now, we can look at this particular SC problem.
The pronouns "
it" refer to the antecedent "
music." Here's why.
The parallel participles "
transferring . . . copying . . . altering" act as verb-modifiers, or
adverbial phrases, so the
Modifier Touch Rule is 100% irrelevant to these.
This is a rare case in which the grammar doesn't gives us any clues and we must rely on
meaning to discern the correct antecedent. What is it that users "
transfer . . . copy . . . and digitally alter"? Users do this to
music, not to collections of music. Therefore, the antecedent is a singular noun, and the pronoun must be singular.
On the GMAT SC, you never can ignore meaning. The whole point of language is to convey meaning, and the GMAT SC is always focused on this.
Does this answer your question?
Mike