Karanzzz11
While I understand this.
However in the question also there is a talk about processing cocoa as the first stage in making chocolate and if European and North American companies have increased processing capabilities will also increase the demand of cocoa beans and we know that if the demand is high and the supply is low(which is clearly known by the premise established) doesnt it make the price high?
I used this approach and marked B as the correct option. Can you explain how my reasoning is incorrect.
It's important to keep in mind that manufacturers that
use cocoa (for example, factories that process cocoa for chocolate) do not SUPPLY cocoa. Instead, such manufacturers purchase cocoa to make other stuff, such as chocolate.
Improving processing capacity might lower costs for those manufacturers, but who knows whether those savings will be passed on to consumers. Hershey, for example, might leave chocolate bar prices the same and just pocket the extra profit. Just because Hershey improves its processing capacity does not automatically mean that Hershey will
demand more cocoa from suppliers.
Sure, it's possible that the recent improvements in processing capacity help explain the first-quarter rise in cocoa grinding, but the data itself (the percent rise in grinding of cocoa beans) is already given in the passage. Knowing why the data is true is interesting trivia, but it doesn't strengthen the argument.
And even if (D) helps explain the current production levels, there is no reason to believe the production will CONTINUE to rise.
I hope that helps!