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nverma
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this is a very simple question. option A is not confusing at all. it says 'some people are born with reversed perception' how can that be ascertained ? suppose no one is born with reversed perception ? we have no way to know so A is out no doubt.

CDE are all garbage , only B is consistent with the 'suppose...'

and OA is B , i have confirmed after googling this question.
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IMO B, i reached their through process of elimination.

The existentialists are right about one thing: we are alone, radically alone. The proof is obvious. Suppose you were born with a physiology that permitted you to perceive only negative images, that is, you saw black where everyone else saw white and white where everyone else saw black. Nevertheless, you would learn to call what you saw as black by the name “white” because this is what you would be taught, and there would be no way that you could discover your error.
Which one of the following can be validly inferred from the statements in the argument above?

(A) Some people are born with reversed perceptions of black and white, and they cannot discover this. -->Incorrect, last line of the passage tells about it. rather they are taught the opposite.

(B) People with reversed perceptions of black and white would not choose their words any differently from anyone else. -> Skipped this and moved to option C.

(C) Existentialism is a sound philosophy, as is amply demonstrated by the physiology of color perception. --> Incorrect as in the passage we are talking about existentialists and no where about the philosophy.

(D) The existentialists claim that some people are born with reversed perceptions of black and white.--> INCORRECT no where it it mentioned what they think. OOS

(E) The existentialists claim that people mean different things when they use the words “black” and “white.” --> The never claimed about it.

Left with option B.
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Hello from the GMAT Club VerbalBot!

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